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NUR 442 Pediatric Nursing 2026–2027 – Burns 8th Ed. System-Based Exam Bank & Rationales

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Prepare for NUR 442 Pediatric Nursing with a comprehensive system-based exam bank based on Burns 8th Edition. Review pediatric assessment, growth and development, common childhood disorders, system-specific conditions, nursing interventions, patient safety, and clinical judgment through focused practice questions with detailed rationales. Ideal for pediatric nursing students seeking comprehensive 2026–2027 exam preparation and review. What’s Included: NUR 442 Pediatric Nursing system-based exam bank Burns Pediatric Nursing 8th Edition-focused review Practice questions with detailed rationales Pediatric assessment, growth and development, and system-based conditions Nursing interventions, clinical judgment, prioritization, and patient safety

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NUR_442: Pediatric Nursing Exam 8th edition Burns System-Based
Approach Exam Bank 2026/2027 Comprehensive System Edition
Detailed Rationales and Verified Answers




1. A nurse practitioner is evaluating a 9-month-old infant during a routine well-
child visit. The caregiver is concerned because the infant cannot yet stand
independently. The nurse practitioner notes the infant sits unsupported,
transfers objects from hand to hand, and exhibits a mature pincer grasp.
Which of the following is the correct answer or most appropriate
interpretation?
A. Refer the infant to physical therapy for gross motor delays.
B. Reassure the caregiver that the infant is meeting all expected
developmental milestones.
C. Order a comprehensive metabolic panel and skull radiographs.
D. Recommend immediate evaluation for childhood muscular dystrophy.
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Reassure the caregiver that the infant is meeting
all expected developmental milestones.

, RATIONALE: In pediatric primary care development, an infant is expected
to sit unsupported, transfer objects hand-to-hand, and achieve a mature pincer
grasp by 9 months of age. Independent standing and cruising typically emerge
between 10 and 12 months, while independent walking occurs up to 15 months.
Therefore, the infant is developing normally, and expensive neuroimaging or
physical therapy referrals are completely inappropriate.
2. A 14-month-old toddler is brought to the clinic for a suspected middle ear
infection. To perform the otoscopic examination safely and visualize the
tympanic membrane, how should the nurse practitioner manipulate the
pinna?
A. Pull the pinna upward and backward.
B. Push the tragus firmly inward.
C. Pull the pinna straight down and backward.
D. Pull the pinna upward and forward.
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Pull the pinna straight down and backward.
RATIONALE: Due to the anatomical alignment of the pediatric external
auditory canal, the canal curves upward and forward in infants and toddlers. For
children under 3 years of age, the nurse must pull the pinna down and back to
straighten the canal for visualization. Pulling the pinna up and back is the correct
technique reserved exclusively for adults and children older than 3 years.
3. A 6-year-old child presents to the primary care clinic with an acute asthma
flare-up. The nurse practitioner prescribes an immediate nebulizer treatment
of albuterol. What is the primary pharmacological mechanism of action
of this short-acting beta-2 agonist (SABA)?
A. Inhibits leukotriene receptors to stop mucosal edema.
B. Blocks muscarinic cholinergic receptors to decrease vagal tone.
C. Stimulates beta-2 adrenergic receptors, increasing cyclic AMP to
relax bronchial smooth muscle.
D. Stabilizes mast cell membranes to prevent systemic histamine release.
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Stimulates beta-2 adrenergic receptors, increasing
cyclic AMP to relax bronchial smooth muscle.
RATIONALE: Albuterol is a SABA that selectively binds to beta-2
adrenergic receptors on bronchial smooth muscle cells. This binding activates
adenylate cyclase, converting ATP to cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP),

, which lowers intracellular calcium and causes rapid bronchodilation. It does not
block cholinergic pathways (which is the role of ipratropium) or block leukotrienes
(the role of montelukast).
4. A 4-month-old infant is diagnosed with acute RSV bronchiolitis presenting
with a low-grade fever, wheezing, tachypnea, and copy nasal secretions.
Which clinical intervention represents the correct answer or cornerstone of
management?
A. Supportive care including hydration, frequent nasal suctioning, and
close pulse oximetry monitoring.
B. Empirical initiation of oral corticosteroids and high-dose albuterol.
C. Intravenous broad-spectrum cephalosporin therapy.
D. Prophylactic administration of racemic epinephrine every 2 hours.
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Supportive care including hydration, frequent
nasal suctioning, and close pulse oximetry monitoring.
RATIONALE: According to Burns' Advanced Pediatric Primary Care
guidelines, the treatment for uncomplicated viral bronchiolitis is strictly
supportive care. This highlights maintaining adequate hydration, clearing the
airway with nasal suctioning, and monitoring oxygen levels. Systemic steroids,
routine bronchodilators like albuterol, and antibiotics are explicitly not
recommended for viral bronchiolitis because they do not alter the course of the
disease and carry unnecessary risks.
5. During a routine wellness evaluation of a 2-month-old infant, the clinician
auscultates a loud, continuous "machinery" murmur best heard at the
upper left sternal border. Which of the following conditions is the correct
answer?
A. Ventricular septal defect (VSD)
B. Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA)
C. Tetralogy of Fallot
D. Coarctation of the aorta
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA)
RATIONALE: A continuous machinery-like murmur heard throughout
systole and diastole at the upper left sternal border is pathognomonic for a patent
ductus arteriosus (PDA). A VSD presents with a harsh holosystolic murmur at
the left lower sternal border. Tetralogy of Fallot classically features a harsh systolic

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