Wgu D447 – Women’s & Children’s
Health | Objective Assessment | Oa 200
Questions With Answers Graded A+
Assured Success
Q1. A client is seen for her first prenatal visit at 10 weeks gestation. Which assessment
finding would the nurse expect?
A. Fetal heart tones via fetoscope
B. Fetal movement felt by the mother
C. Fundal height at the umbilicus
D. Fetal heart tones via Doppler
Answer: D
Rationale: At 10 weeks, fetal heart tones are detectable by Doppler ultrasound.
Fetoscope detection is possible at 18–20 weeks. Quickening typically occurs at 16–20
weeks. The fundus reaches the umbilicus at approximately 20 weeks .
Q2. A client at 32 weeks gestation reports frequent urination. Which statement is most
accurate?
A. This is a sign of gestational diabetes
B. This is a sign of preterm labor
C. This is normal due to the enlarging uterus
D. This indicates a urinary tract infection
Answer: C
,Rationale: Frequent urination is common in the first and third trimesters due to
pressure on the bladder. While UTIs and gestational diabetes can cause urinary
symptoms, this is a normal physiological change .
Q3. A client at 28 weeks gestation is Rh-negative. Which intervention is indicated?
A. Administer Rh immune globulin at 28 weeks
B. Administer Rh immune globulin after delivery only
C. Administer Rh immune globulin at 36 weeks
D. No intervention is indicated
Answer: A
Rationale: Rh-negative mothers receive RhoGAM at 28 weeks and again within 72
hours of delivery if the infant is Rh-positive. RhoGAM prevents isoimmunization by
destroying fetal Rh-positive cells .
Q4. A client at 32 weeks gestation is diagnosed with preeclampsia. Which finding should
the nurse report immediately?
A. 1+ pedal edema
B. Right upper quadrant pain
C. Urinary output of 50 mL/hr
D. Blood pressure of 138/88 mmHg
Answer: B
Rationale: RUQ pain may indicate hepatic involvement or HELLP syndrome (Hemolysis,
Elevated Liver enzymes, Low Platelets), a life-threatening complication requiring
immediate intervention .
Q5. Naegele's Rule for estimating the expected date of delivery is calculated by:
A. Subtracting 7 days from LMP and adding 7 months
B. Adding 14 days to LMP and adding 9 months
,C. Adding 7 days to the first day of LMP, subtracting 3 months, and adding one year
D. Using conception date plus 38 weeks
Answer: C
Rationale: Naegele's Rule: LMP minus 3 months plus 7 days plus 1 year (or LMP + 280
days). It assumes a regular 28-day cycle .
Q6. Gravida and para notation G5P3114 indicates:
A. 5 pregnancies, 3 term births, 1 living child, 1 abortion, 4 preterm births
B. 5 pregnancies, 3 abortions, 1 preterm birth, 1 term birth, 4 living children
C. 3 pregnancies, 5 term births, 1 abortion, 1 preterm birth, 4 living children
D. 5 pregnancies, 3 term births, 1 preterm birth, 1 abortion, 4 living children
Answer: D
Rationale: GTPAL: Gravida (total pregnancies), Term births, Preterm births,
Abortions/miscarriages, Living children. G5P3114 = 5 pregnancies, 3 term, 1 preterm, 1
abortion, 4 living .
Q7. Goodell's sign is characterized by:
A. Bluish discoloration of the cervix
B. Softening of the lower uterine segment
C. Softening of the cervix due to increased vascularity
D. Darkening of the areola
Answer: C
Rationale: Goodell's sign is cervical softening at 6–8 weeks. Bluish discoloration is
Chadwick's sign. Lower uterine softening is Hegar's sign .
Q8. The recommended prenatal visit schedule from 28 to 36 weeks is:
, A. Every 4 weeks
B. Every 3 months
C. Every 2 weeks
D. Only once at 32 weeks
Answer: C
Rationale: Routine visits: every 4 weeks until 28 weeks, every 2 weeks from 28–36
weeks, weekly after 36 weeks .
Q9. Normal fetal heart rate at term is:
A. 110–160 beats per minute
B. 80–100 beats per minute
C. 170–200 beats per minute
D. 60–80 beats per minute
Answer: A
Rationale: Normal FHR at term is 110–160 bpm. Values outside this range require
evaluation .
Q10. A client at 12 weeks reports frequent urination and fatigue. Which response is
most appropriate?
A. "These are normal early pregnancy symptoms."
B. "You should be evaluated for a UTI."
C. "You should restrict fluid intake."
D. "These symptoms indicate gestational diabetes."
Answer: A
Rationale: Frequent urination is caused by increased GFR and bladder pressure. Fatigue
is due to increased progesterone and metabolic demands. Both are normal .
Health | Objective Assessment | Oa 200
Questions With Answers Graded A+
Assured Success
Q1. A client is seen for her first prenatal visit at 10 weeks gestation. Which assessment
finding would the nurse expect?
A. Fetal heart tones via fetoscope
B. Fetal movement felt by the mother
C. Fundal height at the umbilicus
D. Fetal heart tones via Doppler
Answer: D
Rationale: At 10 weeks, fetal heart tones are detectable by Doppler ultrasound.
Fetoscope detection is possible at 18–20 weeks. Quickening typically occurs at 16–20
weeks. The fundus reaches the umbilicus at approximately 20 weeks .
Q2. A client at 32 weeks gestation reports frequent urination. Which statement is most
accurate?
A. This is a sign of gestational diabetes
B. This is a sign of preterm labor
C. This is normal due to the enlarging uterus
D. This indicates a urinary tract infection
Answer: C
,Rationale: Frequent urination is common in the first and third trimesters due to
pressure on the bladder. While UTIs and gestational diabetes can cause urinary
symptoms, this is a normal physiological change .
Q3. A client at 28 weeks gestation is Rh-negative. Which intervention is indicated?
A. Administer Rh immune globulin at 28 weeks
B. Administer Rh immune globulin after delivery only
C. Administer Rh immune globulin at 36 weeks
D. No intervention is indicated
Answer: A
Rationale: Rh-negative mothers receive RhoGAM at 28 weeks and again within 72
hours of delivery if the infant is Rh-positive. RhoGAM prevents isoimmunization by
destroying fetal Rh-positive cells .
Q4. A client at 32 weeks gestation is diagnosed with preeclampsia. Which finding should
the nurse report immediately?
A. 1+ pedal edema
B. Right upper quadrant pain
C. Urinary output of 50 mL/hr
D. Blood pressure of 138/88 mmHg
Answer: B
Rationale: RUQ pain may indicate hepatic involvement or HELLP syndrome (Hemolysis,
Elevated Liver enzymes, Low Platelets), a life-threatening complication requiring
immediate intervention .
Q5. Naegele's Rule for estimating the expected date of delivery is calculated by:
A. Subtracting 7 days from LMP and adding 7 months
B. Adding 14 days to LMP and adding 9 months
,C. Adding 7 days to the first day of LMP, subtracting 3 months, and adding one year
D. Using conception date plus 38 weeks
Answer: C
Rationale: Naegele's Rule: LMP minus 3 months plus 7 days plus 1 year (or LMP + 280
days). It assumes a regular 28-day cycle .
Q6. Gravida and para notation G5P3114 indicates:
A. 5 pregnancies, 3 term births, 1 living child, 1 abortion, 4 preterm births
B. 5 pregnancies, 3 abortions, 1 preterm birth, 1 term birth, 4 living children
C. 3 pregnancies, 5 term births, 1 abortion, 1 preterm birth, 4 living children
D. 5 pregnancies, 3 term births, 1 preterm birth, 1 abortion, 4 living children
Answer: D
Rationale: GTPAL: Gravida (total pregnancies), Term births, Preterm births,
Abortions/miscarriages, Living children. G5P3114 = 5 pregnancies, 3 term, 1 preterm, 1
abortion, 4 living .
Q7. Goodell's sign is characterized by:
A. Bluish discoloration of the cervix
B. Softening of the lower uterine segment
C. Softening of the cervix due to increased vascularity
D. Darkening of the areola
Answer: C
Rationale: Goodell's sign is cervical softening at 6–8 weeks. Bluish discoloration is
Chadwick's sign. Lower uterine softening is Hegar's sign .
Q8. The recommended prenatal visit schedule from 28 to 36 weeks is:
, A. Every 4 weeks
B. Every 3 months
C. Every 2 weeks
D. Only once at 32 weeks
Answer: C
Rationale: Routine visits: every 4 weeks until 28 weeks, every 2 weeks from 28–36
weeks, weekly after 36 weeks .
Q9. Normal fetal heart rate at term is:
A. 110–160 beats per minute
B. 80–100 beats per minute
C. 170–200 beats per minute
D. 60–80 beats per minute
Answer: A
Rationale: Normal FHR at term is 110–160 bpm. Values outside this range require
evaluation .
Q10. A client at 12 weeks reports frequent urination and fatigue. Which response is
most appropriate?
A. "These are normal early pregnancy symptoms."
B. "You should be evaluated for a UTI."
C. "You should restrict fluid intake."
D. "These symptoms indicate gestational diabetes."
Answer: A
Rationale: Frequent urination is caused by increased GFR and bladder pressure. Fatigue
is due to increased progesterone and metabolic demands. Both are normal .
