NUR 175 Final Exam Actual Exam V3 | NUR 175 Mental Health
(NUR175 Final Exam) | Joyce University
1. A nurse is caring for a client with major depressive disorder who states, ‘I just don’t see the
point in anything anymore.’ Which of the following responses by the nurse is therapeutic?
A. You have so much to live for, don’t say that.
B. It sounds like you are feeling very hopeless right now.
C. Why do you feel that way today?
D. I felt that way once, but things eventually got better.
Answer: B
Rationale: Reflecting the client’s feelings demonstrates empathy and encourages further
expression of emotions. The nurse should avoid giving false reassurance or asking ‘why’
questions, which can be perceived as accusatory. This approach builds a therapeutic
alliance by validating the client’s current emotional state.
2. A client is prescribed Lithium Carbonate for the treatment of Bipolar I Disorder. Which of
the following laboratory values should the nurse prioritize reviewing?
A. Serum Sodium
B. Serum Potassium
C. Liver Enzymes
D. Hemoglobin A1c
Answer: A
Rationale: Lithium is a salt, and its excretion is closely linked to sodium levels in the body.
If sodium levels drop, the kidneys retain lithium, which can lead to toxicity. The nurse must
monitor sodium intake and levels to ensure the client remains within a safe therapeutic
range.
3. Which of the following is considered a ‘negative symptom’ of Schizophrenia?
A. Flat affect
B. Delusions of grandeur
C. Auditory hallucinations
D. Disorganized speech
Answer: A
,Rationale: Negative symptoms represent a loss or diminution of normal functions, such as
emotional expression or motivation. A flat affect indicates a lack of emotional reactivity,
which is a classic negative symptom. In contrast, hallucinations and delusions are positive
symptoms because they represent an excess or distortion of normal function.
4. A nurse is assessing a client for potential suicide risk. Which statement by the client
requires the most immediate intervention?
A. I have a gun in my garage and I’m going to use it tonight.
B. I think my family would be better off if I wasn’t here.
C. I’ve been feeling really down lately.
D. I don’t think these medications are working for me.
Answer: A
Rationale: This statement indicates a specific plan, a lethal method, and an immediate
timeframe, which signifies a high level of lethality. The nurse must prioritize the safety of
the client by implementing immediate suicide precautions. Identifying the plan and access
to means is a critical component of a comprehensive lethality assessment.
5. A client is experiencing a severe panic attack. Which nursing intervention is the priority?
A. Staying with the client and using calm, short sentences.
B. Teaching the client deep breathing exercises.
C. Encouraging the client to discuss the cause of their anxiety.
D. Administering a PRN dose of an SSRI.
Answer: A
Rationale: During a severe panic attack, the client’s ability to process information is
severely limited. Staying with the client provides a sense of safety, and using short, simple
sentences ensures the communication is understood. Complex teaching or deep discussion
should be deferred until the acute anxiety has subsided.
6. A client with Borderline Personality Disorder is praising one nurse while telling another
nurse that they are ‘incompetent and mean.’ This behavior is known as:
A. Projection
B. Reaction Formation
C. Splitting
D. Regression
Answer: C
, Rationale: Splitting is a common defense mechanism in Borderline Personality Disorder
where individuals view others as either ‘all good’ or ‘all bad.’ This behavior can cause
conflict among staff members, necessitating a consistent, team-based approach to care. The
nurse must recognize this pattern to maintain professional boundaries and unit stability.
7. A client taking Haloperidol (Haldol) develops a high fever, muscle rigidity, and tachycardia.
What is the nurse’s priority action?
A. Administer the next dose of Haloperidol early.
B. Place the client in a quiet, dark room.
C. Apply a cooling blanket and reassess in one hour.
D. Hold the medication and notify the provider immediately.
Answer: D
Rationale: These symptoms are indicative of Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS), a
life-threatening complication of antipsychotic medications. The medication must be
stopped immediately to prevent further physiological deterioration. Immediate medical
intervention is required to manage the hyperthermia and autonomic instability associated
with NMS.
8. Which education should the nurse provide to a client starting Phenelzine (Nardil), an
MAOI?
A. Avoid foods containing tyramine, such as aged cheeses and red wine.
B. Stop the medication immediately if you feel dizzy.
C. Take the medication with a large glass of grapefruit juice.
D. Increase your intake of leafy green vegetables.
Answer: A
Rationale: MAOIs interact with tyramine-rich foods to cause a hypertensive crisis, which
can be fatal. The client must be strictly educated on dietary restrictions to ensure safety.
This teaching is a critical component of medication management for clients prescribed
older antidepressants.
9. A nurse is caring for a client with Anorexia Nervosa. Which assessment finding is the most
critical to report to the provider?
A. Amenorrhea for the past three months.
B. Lanugo on the back and arms.
C. Bradycardia and orthostatic hypotension.
D. Preoccupation with food recipes.
(NUR175 Final Exam) | Joyce University
1. A nurse is caring for a client with major depressive disorder who states, ‘I just don’t see the
point in anything anymore.’ Which of the following responses by the nurse is therapeutic?
A. You have so much to live for, don’t say that.
B. It sounds like you are feeling very hopeless right now.
C. Why do you feel that way today?
D. I felt that way once, but things eventually got better.
Answer: B
Rationale: Reflecting the client’s feelings demonstrates empathy and encourages further
expression of emotions. The nurse should avoid giving false reassurance or asking ‘why’
questions, which can be perceived as accusatory. This approach builds a therapeutic
alliance by validating the client’s current emotional state.
2. A client is prescribed Lithium Carbonate for the treatment of Bipolar I Disorder. Which of
the following laboratory values should the nurse prioritize reviewing?
A. Serum Sodium
B. Serum Potassium
C. Liver Enzymes
D. Hemoglobin A1c
Answer: A
Rationale: Lithium is a salt, and its excretion is closely linked to sodium levels in the body.
If sodium levels drop, the kidneys retain lithium, which can lead to toxicity. The nurse must
monitor sodium intake and levels to ensure the client remains within a safe therapeutic
range.
3. Which of the following is considered a ‘negative symptom’ of Schizophrenia?
A. Flat affect
B. Delusions of grandeur
C. Auditory hallucinations
D. Disorganized speech
Answer: A
,Rationale: Negative symptoms represent a loss or diminution of normal functions, such as
emotional expression or motivation. A flat affect indicates a lack of emotional reactivity,
which is a classic negative symptom. In contrast, hallucinations and delusions are positive
symptoms because they represent an excess or distortion of normal function.
4. A nurse is assessing a client for potential suicide risk. Which statement by the client
requires the most immediate intervention?
A. I have a gun in my garage and I’m going to use it tonight.
B. I think my family would be better off if I wasn’t here.
C. I’ve been feeling really down lately.
D. I don’t think these medications are working for me.
Answer: A
Rationale: This statement indicates a specific plan, a lethal method, and an immediate
timeframe, which signifies a high level of lethality. The nurse must prioritize the safety of
the client by implementing immediate suicide precautions. Identifying the plan and access
to means is a critical component of a comprehensive lethality assessment.
5. A client is experiencing a severe panic attack. Which nursing intervention is the priority?
A. Staying with the client and using calm, short sentences.
B. Teaching the client deep breathing exercises.
C. Encouraging the client to discuss the cause of their anxiety.
D. Administering a PRN dose of an SSRI.
Answer: A
Rationale: During a severe panic attack, the client’s ability to process information is
severely limited. Staying with the client provides a sense of safety, and using short, simple
sentences ensures the communication is understood. Complex teaching or deep discussion
should be deferred until the acute anxiety has subsided.
6. A client with Borderline Personality Disorder is praising one nurse while telling another
nurse that they are ‘incompetent and mean.’ This behavior is known as:
A. Projection
B. Reaction Formation
C. Splitting
D. Regression
Answer: C
, Rationale: Splitting is a common defense mechanism in Borderline Personality Disorder
where individuals view others as either ‘all good’ or ‘all bad.’ This behavior can cause
conflict among staff members, necessitating a consistent, team-based approach to care. The
nurse must recognize this pattern to maintain professional boundaries and unit stability.
7. A client taking Haloperidol (Haldol) develops a high fever, muscle rigidity, and tachycardia.
What is the nurse’s priority action?
A. Administer the next dose of Haloperidol early.
B. Place the client in a quiet, dark room.
C. Apply a cooling blanket and reassess in one hour.
D. Hold the medication and notify the provider immediately.
Answer: D
Rationale: These symptoms are indicative of Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS), a
life-threatening complication of antipsychotic medications. The medication must be
stopped immediately to prevent further physiological deterioration. Immediate medical
intervention is required to manage the hyperthermia and autonomic instability associated
with NMS.
8. Which education should the nurse provide to a client starting Phenelzine (Nardil), an
MAOI?
A. Avoid foods containing tyramine, such as aged cheeses and red wine.
B. Stop the medication immediately if you feel dizzy.
C. Take the medication with a large glass of grapefruit juice.
D. Increase your intake of leafy green vegetables.
Answer: A
Rationale: MAOIs interact with tyramine-rich foods to cause a hypertensive crisis, which
can be fatal. The client must be strictly educated on dietary restrictions to ensure safety.
This teaching is a critical component of medication management for clients prescribed
older antidepressants.
9. A nurse is caring for a client with Anorexia Nervosa. Which assessment finding is the most
critical to report to the provider?
A. Amenorrhea for the past three months.
B. Lanugo on the back and arms.
C. Bradycardia and orthostatic hypotension.
D. Preoccupation with food recipes.
