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Test Bank for Pathophysiology for Advanced Practice, 1st Edition by Workman (Rationales Included)

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Complete Test Bank for Pathophysiology for Advanced Practice, 1e 1st Edition by M. Linda Workman, John M Clochesy. All Chapters (Ch 1 to 47) are included with answers. ISBN 9780803699809. Latest Instructor exam guide which includes below types of questions. Multiple Choice (MCQs) Answers given with rationales PART I: FOUNDATIONAL PHYSIOLOGIC CONCEPTS I. The Cell 1. Cellular Biology, Regulation, and Control Mechanisms 2. Cellular and Tissue Physiology 3. Bioenergetics and Body Metabolism 4. Body Fluid Homeostasis II. Genetics and Genomics 5. Basic Genetics 6. Patterns of Inheritance, Mitochondrial Inheritance, Epigeneticand Selected Associated Disorders III. Inflammation, Immunity, Infection, and Cancer Biology 7. Innate Immunity and Inflammation 8. Adaptive Immunity 9. Infectious Processes and Body Responses 10. Abnormal Cell Growth and Cancer Biology PART II: PATHOPHYSIOLOGY OF DISORDERS WITHIN SPECIFIC BODY SYSTEMS OXYGENATION AND PERFUSION IV. Cardiovascular System 11. Review of Cardiovascular Development, Structure, and Function 12. Vascular Disorders 13. Cardiac Disorders 14. Congenital Heart Disease Across the Lifespan 15. Shock and Multiple Organ Dysfunction Syndrome V. Pulmonary System 16. Review of Pulmonary Structure, Development, and Function 17. Congenital, Obstructive, and Restrictive Pulmonary Disorders 18. Infectious Pulmonary Disorders and Lung Cancer VI. Renal-Urinary System 19. Review of Renal System Structure, Development, and Function 20. Urinary Tract Disorders 21. Kidney Disorders VII. Hematologic and Lymphatic System 22. Chapter 22. Review of Hematologic System Development, Structure, and Function 23. Chapter 23. Hematologic and Lymphatic System Disorders SENSATION, MOBILITY, AND REGULATION VIII. Nervous System 24. Review of Nervous System Development, Structure, and Function 25. Central Nervous System Disorders 26. Peripheral Nervous System Disorder 27. Disorders of the Special Senses 28. Mental Health Disorders IX. Musculoskeletal System 29. Review of Musculoskeletal Development, Structure, and Function 30. Muscle and Tendon Disorders 31. Bone and Joint Disorders X. Endocrine System 32. Review of Endocrine Structure, Function, and Interactions 33. Disorders of the Hypothalamus, Pituitary Glands, and Adrenal Glands 34. Disorders of the Thyroid Gland and the Parathyroid Glands 35. Glycemic Control and Diabetes Mellitus PROTECTION, NUTRITION, AND REPRODUCTION XI. Disorders of Immunity 36. Disorders of Reduced Immune Function 37. Hypersensitivity and Autoimmune Disorders XII. Integumentary System 38. Review of Integumentary Development, Structure, and Function 39. Integumentary System Disorder XIII. Digestive System 40. Review of Gastrointestinal Development, Structure, and Function 41. Disorders of the Mouth, Throat, Esophagus, and Stomach 42. Disorders of the Small Intestine, Large Intestine, Pancreas, and Hepatobiliary System XIV. Reproductive Systems 43. Review of Reproductive System Development, Structure, Function, and Sex Chromosome Abnormalities 44. Common Disorders of the Female Reproductive System 45. Male Reproductive Disorders 46. Sexually Transmitted Infections 47. Physiology and Pathophysiology of the Breast

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Workman: Pathophysiology for Advanced Practice, 1e 1
Test Bank


Chapter 1 Cellular Biology, Regulation, and Control Mechanisms

1. Which structure(s) is/are common feature(s) of all cells regardless of cellular function or degree of
maturity?
A. Cilia
B. Nuclear envelope
C. Plasma membranes
D. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: All human cells have a plasma membrane, although it may have other names in skeletal
muscles and neurons. Other features, such as a nucleus, rough and smooth endoplasmic reticulum,
mitochondria, and others, are not present in every cell type.

2. Why are most positive feedback mechanisms harmful if allowed to continue to function
indefinitely?
A. They amplify the effects of the initiating stimulus, increasing the undesirable response.
B. They require additional energy in the form of ATP and impair normal cellular uptake of nutrients.
C. They misinterpret the input from homeostatic monitoring centers and delay control response time.
D. They decrease the range of normal for most parameters, negating the need for homeostasis.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Positive feedback mechanisms have the same responses as the initiating change, which
results in an amplification of the changed parameter, often increasing its rate of change. They can be
helpful in the very short run until other interventions or mechanisms can correct the initiating
problem. However, when they continue uncorrected, they lead to exhaustion of the system.

3. Which property of plasma membranes contributes to a cell's longevity?
A. Unlimited size
B. Lack of covalent bonds
C. Hydrophilic outer surface
D. High concentration of lipids
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: An important feature of plasma membranes is flexibility or fluidity, which allows cells to
change shape or "deform" without breaking. This feature is a result of the phospholipids composing
plasma membranes not having covalent bonds that would make them more rigid and more easily
ruptured when squeezing through small capillaries or when pressure is applied.




Copyright © 2026

,Workman: Pathophysiology for Advanced Practice, 1e 2
Test Bank


4. Which cell type is most likely to have the characteristic of polarity of orientation?
A. Red blood cell (erythrocyte)
B. Bronchial epithelium
C. Skeletal muscle
D. Lysosome
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Some cells are symmetrical on all sides, whereas others are asymmetrical and have
polarity with regard to orientation. This is related to differences in plasma membrane surface anatomy
for a cell's specific function. For example, a respiratory epithelial cell has cilia on the luminal surface
and none on the apical surface that is in contact with the basement membrane. The same is true about
the epithelial lining of the intestinal tract with the luminal surfaces expressing villi.

5. Why does the lack of a nucleus in a mature erythrocyte fail to affect its function?
A. Function of these cells is independent of a constant oxygen supply.
B. Their membranes are more rigid than those of other cell types.
C. These cells no longer produce intracellular proteins.
D. Erythrocytes do not require energy for locomotion.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Without a nucleus, a cell can neither divide nor produce proteins. In the case of mature
erythrocytes, all cell division and protein production, including hemoglobin, are performed at an
earlier, less mature stage. Thus, a mature erythrocyte is already equipped with everything it needs for
function (transport of oxygen, acting as a buffering system) and no longer needs a nucleus.

6. What is the purpose of "chaperone" proteins?
A. Completing the degradation of intracellular debris
B. Transporting newly synthesized proteins for exocytosis
C. Adding a ligand to the plasma membrane for endocytosis
D. Ensuring the correct folding of newly synthesized proteins
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Newly synthesized protein strands are released into the lumen of the RER with their
amino acids in linear order. However, protein function is based on its final structure, which includes
how it is folded. In the smooth ER (SER), "chaperone" proteins serve as guides that help fold the new
protein into its correct conformation (shape) for final function.




Copyright © 2026

,Workman: Pathophysiology for Advanced Practice, 1e 3
Test Bank


7. Why are hydrolases confined to lysosomes?
A. The pH of lysosomes optimizes hydrolase activity.
B. They ensure degradation products are recycled appropriately.
C. They maintain a constant regeneration of transmembrane proteins.
D. Lysosomes have a direct connection to the nucleus where hydrolase is synthesized.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The hydrolases within a lysosome are most effective at a pH of 4, which is the pH
maintained within lysosomes.

8. Why is it necessary to limit the intracellular presence of reactive oxygen species (ROS)?
A. High levels of ROS slow cellular locomotion.
B. ROS inhibit the activity of lysosomal catalase and hydrolase.
C. ROS contribute to an overly acidic intracellular environment.
D. They can damage/inhibit the function of intracellular components.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Because ROS can also oxidize almost anything and cause oxidative stress and damage to
other organelles, tissues, and organs, preventing ROS from coming into contact with other normal cell
structures is critical.

9. Under normal physiologic conditions, which cell type has the highest concentration of
mitochondria?
A. Dermal skin cells
B. Intradermal skin cells
C. Mature erythrocytes
D. Skeletal muscle cells
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Mitochondria are the "powerhouses" for ATP production under aerobic conditions. They
are highly concentrated in tissues that are most metabolically active, such as skeletal muscle, heart
muscle, and liver cells, and they are only present in minimal or basal concentrations in less
metabolically active cells, such as skin cells and erythrocytes.

10. Why is glucose inhibited from entering most cells through simple passive diffusion even though it
is a nonpolar molecule?
A. The molecule expresses an overall negative charge.
B. Glucose is highly hydrophilic.
C. The molecule is too large for unaided diffusion.
D. Glucose is devoid of lipid-soluble components.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Simple passive diffusion allows small, hydrophobic, uncharged (nonpolar) molecules to
diffuse across plasma membranes easily. Although glucose is a nonpolar molecule, it is composed of
24 molecules linked together covalently, making it too large to move across most plasma membranes
by simple diffusion.
Copyright © 2026

, Workman: Pathophysiology for Advanced Practice, 1e 4
Test Bank


11. Which factor regarding the generation of action potentials (AP) is true?
A. The speed of depolarization is determined by the number of Na⁺-K⁺ ATPase pumps present in the
membrane.
B. Action potentials can only be generated in cells that normally express a high degree of polarity
when the membrane is at rest.
C. Although an AP may be initiated at any area of an excitable membrane, propagation of the AP is
unidirectional within one cell.
D. Excessive amounts of extracellular calcium enhance the capacity of an excitable membrane to
generate an action potential.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: All cells have an ICF that is more negative than the ECF, with nonexcitable membranes
having an electrical resting membrane potential of between −5 and −10 mV, and the ICF is only
slightly more negative than the ECF. Cells with excitable membranes have a much greater charge
difference between the ICF and the ECF, usually between −70 and −85 mV, which is required to
generate an action potential that can be transmitted to other cells within the tissue.

12. In any excitable membrane, what is the trigger for opening of the potassium channels during the
process of depolarization?
A. Rising intracellular ATP concentration
B. Loss of intracellular fluid protein content
C. Increased flexibility of plasma membranes
D. Closure of the voltage-regulated sodium channels
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A stimulus for depolarization causes a small portion of the excitable membrane to be more
permeable to Na⁺, which allows Na⁺ to influx down its concentration gradient into the cell. Movement
of Na⁺ into the cell increases ICF positivity. When ICF positivity reaches threshold level (about +55
mV), all voltage-gated Na⁺ channels along the plasma membrane open at the same time, allowing Na⁺
to rapidly enter the cell until the Na⁺ concentrations in the ICF and the ECF surrounding the cell are
the same and depolarized with regard to Na⁺. At this time, the voltage-regulated Na⁺ channels close.
Closure of these channels triggers K⁺ channels to open, allowing intracellular K⁺ molecules to rapidly
leave the cell down its concentration gradient until the original resting state is restored.

13. Which cellular process involves the movement of water across a semipermeable membrane from
an area of lower solute concentration to an area of higher solute concentration?
A. Active transport
B. Facilitated diffusion
C. Osmosis
D. Endocytosis
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Osmosis is the movement of water across a semipermeable membrane from an area of
lower solute concentration (higher water concentration) to an area of higher solute concentration
(lower water concentration).
Copyright © 2026

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