New Zealand Nursing State Final Exam And
Practice Exam Newest 2026 Test Bank |
Complete 450 Real Exam Questions And
Correct Detailed Answers (Verified Answers)
Already Graded A+ (Most Recent!!)
1. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) has an oxygen
saturation of 86% on room air. Which oxygen delivery device should the nurse
apply first?
A. Simple face mask at 6 L/min
B. Nasal cannula at 2 L/min
C. Nasal cannula at 1 L/min
,D. Non-rebreather mask at 15 L/min
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In COPD, hypoxic drive is a concern; starting low (1–2 L/min via nasal
cannula) and titrating up prevents respiratory depression while improving oxygenation.
1 L/min is the safest initial rate.
2. A Māori client refuses a blood transfusion due to tapu (sacred) beliefs regarding
blood. The nurse's priority action is to:
A. Explain the medical necessity of the transfusion
B. Respect the client's decision and consult the cultural support team
C. Ask a family member to persuade the client
D. Administer the transfusion after sedation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Under the Nursing Council of New Zealand's Code of Conduct, cultural safety
requires respecting tapu. The nurse must advocate for the client's autonomous choice
and involve appropriate cultural liaison.
3. A postpartum mother reports a "gush of blood" and a firm fundus at the
umbilicus one hour after vaginal delivery. What is the most likely cause?
A. Uterine atony
B. Retained placenta
C. Lochia rubra with normal involution
D. Cervical laceration
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Lochia rubra is normal for 1–3 days postpartum. A firm fundus rules out
atony; the gush is expected with position change or bladder filling.
4. Which finding in a newborn requires immediate reporting to the pediatric team?
A. Acrocyanosis of hands and feet
B. Respiratory rate of 50 breaths per minute
C. Grunting with nasal flaring
D. Heart rate of 140 beats per minute
,Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Grunting indicates respiratory distress and possible surfactant deficiency or
infection. Acrocyanosis, mild tachypnea (RR 30–60), and HR 120–160 are normal in
newborns.
5. A client on haloperidol presents with neck rigidity, tongue protrusion, and
oculogyric crisis. Which medication should the nurse prepare to administer stat?
A. Naloxone
B. Benztropine
C. Flumazenil
D. Sodium bicarbonate
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: These are acute dystonic reactions from antipsychotics. Benztropine
(anticholinergic) reverses dystonia by correcting dopamine-acetylcholine imbalance.
6. A nurse is caring for a client with major depressive disorder who suddenly
becomes cheerful and energetic. The nurse should first assess for:
A. Improvement in mood due to medication
B. A manic switch in bipolar disorder
C. Suicidal plan with increased energy
D. Side effects of antidepressants
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Sudden mood elevation in severe depression can signal suicidality — the
client now has energy to act on ideation. Safety assessment is priority.
7. A registered nurse discovers that a medication error reached a patient. What is
the nurse's priority?
A. Wait to see whether symptoms develop
B. Ask a colleague to decide what to do
C. Document only after the end of the shift
D. Assess the patient and respond to any harm
Correct Answer: D
, Rationale: Immediate patient safety comes first. The nurse assesses the patient, initiates
appropriate care, and escalates according to policy.
8. Under the Health Practitioners Competence Assurance framework, the primary
purpose of nurse regulation is to:
A. Protect the health and safety of the public
B. Set hospital staffing ratios
C. Guarantee employment for registered nurses
D. Protect nurses from all complaints
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The Nursing Council's statutory role centres on competence and protection
of the public.
9. A competent adult refuses a recommended procedure after receiving
understandable information. The nurse should first:
A. Respect the refusal and document the discussion
B. Proceed because the treatment is beneficial
C. Ask a family member to consent instead
D. Threaten discharge if the patient refuses
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A competent person may refuse care. The nurse should ensure the decision
is informed, respect it, and document it.
10. Which action best demonstrates professional accountability?
A. Avoiding documentation of uncertainty
B. Delegating without checking competence
C. Recognizing limits and seeking assistance when required
D. Accepting every task to appear confident
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Accountability includes practising within competence and seeking help when
necessary.
Practice Exam Newest 2026 Test Bank |
Complete 450 Real Exam Questions And
Correct Detailed Answers (Verified Answers)
Already Graded A+ (Most Recent!!)
1. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) has an oxygen
saturation of 86% on room air. Which oxygen delivery device should the nurse
apply first?
A. Simple face mask at 6 L/min
B. Nasal cannula at 2 L/min
C. Nasal cannula at 1 L/min
,D. Non-rebreather mask at 15 L/min
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In COPD, hypoxic drive is a concern; starting low (1–2 L/min via nasal
cannula) and titrating up prevents respiratory depression while improving oxygenation.
1 L/min is the safest initial rate.
2. A Māori client refuses a blood transfusion due to tapu (sacred) beliefs regarding
blood. The nurse's priority action is to:
A. Explain the medical necessity of the transfusion
B. Respect the client's decision and consult the cultural support team
C. Ask a family member to persuade the client
D. Administer the transfusion after sedation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Under the Nursing Council of New Zealand's Code of Conduct, cultural safety
requires respecting tapu. The nurse must advocate for the client's autonomous choice
and involve appropriate cultural liaison.
3. A postpartum mother reports a "gush of blood" and a firm fundus at the
umbilicus one hour after vaginal delivery. What is the most likely cause?
A. Uterine atony
B. Retained placenta
C. Lochia rubra with normal involution
D. Cervical laceration
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Lochia rubra is normal for 1–3 days postpartum. A firm fundus rules out
atony; the gush is expected with position change or bladder filling.
4. Which finding in a newborn requires immediate reporting to the pediatric team?
A. Acrocyanosis of hands and feet
B. Respiratory rate of 50 breaths per minute
C. Grunting with nasal flaring
D. Heart rate of 140 beats per minute
,Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Grunting indicates respiratory distress and possible surfactant deficiency or
infection. Acrocyanosis, mild tachypnea (RR 30–60), and HR 120–160 are normal in
newborns.
5. A client on haloperidol presents with neck rigidity, tongue protrusion, and
oculogyric crisis. Which medication should the nurse prepare to administer stat?
A. Naloxone
B. Benztropine
C. Flumazenil
D. Sodium bicarbonate
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: These are acute dystonic reactions from antipsychotics. Benztropine
(anticholinergic) reverses dystonia by correcting dopamine-acetylcholine imbalance.
6. A nurse is caring for a client with major depressive disorder who suddenly
becomes cheerful and energetic. The nurse should first assess for:
A. Improvement in mood due to medication
B. A manic switch in bipolar disorder
C. Suicidal plan with increased energy
D. Side effects of antidepressants
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Sudden mood elevation in severe depression can signal suicidality — the
client now has energy to act on ideation. Safety assessment is priority.
7. A registered nurse discovers that a medication error reached a patient. What is
the nurse's priority?
A. Wait to see whether symptoms develop
B. Ask a colleague to decide what to do
C. Document only after the end of the shift
D. Assess the patient and respond to any harm
Correct Answer: D
, Rationale: Immediate patient safety comes first. The nurse assesses the patient, initiates
appropriate care, and escalates according to policy.
8. Under the Health Practitioners Competence Assurance framework, the primary
purpose of nurse regulation is to:
A. Protect the health and safety of the public
B. Set hospital staffing ratios
C. Guarantee employment for registered nurses
D. Protect nurses from all complaints
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The Nursing Council's statutory role centres on competence and protection
of the public.
9. A competent adult refuses a recommended procedure after receiving
understandable information. The nurse should first:
A. Respect the refusal and document the discussion
B. Proceed because the treatment is beneficial
C. Ask a family member to consent instead
D. Threaten discharge if the patient refuses
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A competent person may refuse care. The nurse should ensure the decision
is informed, respect it, and document it.
10. Which action best demonstrates professional accountability?
A. Avoiding documentation of uncertainty
B. Delegating without checking competence
C. Recognizing limits and seeking assistance when required
D. Accepting every task to appear confident
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Accountability includes practising within competence and seeking help when
necessary.
