1|Page
NSG 3500 MATERNAL EXAM 2 REVIEW |
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS | 2026/27
UPDATED COMPLETE – GALEN
COLLEGE [QUESTION 1-100] AND
ANSWERS UPDATED 2026/2027 | 100%
VERIFIED | DETAILED RATIONALES –
PASS GUARANTEED A+ GRADED |
INSTANT DOWNLOAD
Study note: The following is an original practice set based on common maternal-newborn
nursing competencies. It is not an official Galen College exam, leaked exam content, or a
verified copy of the school's assessment.
INTRODUCTION
NSG 3500 Maternal Exam 2 Review is designed to help nursing students strengthen clinical
judgment across important maternal-newborn concepts commonly assessed in an intermediate
maternal nursing course. Students preparing for this type of examination need more than
memorization: they must recognize abnormal findings, prioritize maternal and fetal safety,
interpret assessment data, select appropriate interventions, and evaluate patient responses.
This practice question bank uses challenging, scenario-based multiple-choice questions that
emphasize application and clinical decision-making. Topics include antepartum assessment,
pregnancy complications, fetal surveillance, labor and delivery, medications, patient education,
and prioritization. Each question contains four answer choices and a detailed rationale explaining
the best answer and why the alternatives are less appropriate.
For effective preparation, answer each question without looking at the rationale, then review the
explanation carefully. Pay particular attention to questions involving prioritization, safety, and
changes from expected pregnancy findings. Repeating missed concepts and connecting
assessment findings with appropriate nursing interventions can help build stronger exam-
readiness and clinical reasoning skills.
CONTENT AREA OVERVIEW
,2|Page
Suggested
Content Area Questions Key Topics
Weight
Prenatal assessment, physiologic
Antepartum Assessment 1–15 15%
changes, screening
Hypertension, diabetes, bleeding,
Pregnancy Complications 16–30 15%
infections
Fetal Assessment 31–40 FHR, NST, BPP, fetal movement 10%
Labor stages, contractions, cervical
Labor Assessment 41–55 15%
changes
Pain management, positioning,
Intrapartum Nursing Care 56–70 15%
monitoring
Cord problems, fetal distress, uterine
Obstetric Emergencies 71–80 10%
complications
Maternal Medications 81–90 Oxytocin, magnesium sulfate, analgesia 10%
Patient Education & Safety, discharge teaching, clinical
91–100 10%
Prioritization judgment
QUESTIONS 1–100
ANTEPARTUM ASSESSMENT
Q1:
A pregnant patient at 10 weeks' gestation reports urinary frequency, breast tenderness, and
fatigue. Which interpretation by the nurse is most appropriate?
A) These findings indicate a pathologic pregnancy
B) These findings are commonly associated with physiologic changes of early pregnancy
C) These findings confirm ectopic pregnancy
D) These findings indicate impending miscarriage
Rationale: The correct answer is B because urinary frequency, breast tenderness, and fatigue
are common early-pregnancy findings. A is incorrect because the findings alone do not indicate
pathology. C is incorrect because ectopic pregnancy requires additional assessment findings. D
is incorrect because these symptoms do not by themselves indicate miscarriage.
Q2:
A patient at 12 weeks' gestation asks why folic acid is emphasized before and during early
pregnancy. Which response is most accurate?
,3|Page
A) It prevents all congenital abnormalities
B) It reduces the risk of neural tube defects when adequate intake occurs around conception and
early pregnancy
C) It prevents gestational diabetes
D) It eliminates the need for prenatal screening
Rationale: The correct answer is B because adequate folate around conception and early
pregnancy reduces the risk of neural tube defects. A is too broad because folate does not prevent
all abnormalities. C and D are unrelated to the primary purpose of folate supplementation.
Q3:
A pregnant patient asks why prenatal vitamins contain iron. Which response is best?
A) Iron prevents all pregnancy complications
B) Iron supports increased maternal red blood cell production and helps prevent iron-deficiency
anemia
C) Iron directly increases fetal heart rate
D) Iron replaces the need for dietary protein
Rationale: The correct answer is B because maternal blood volume and red blood cell
production increase during pregnancy, increasing iron requirements. Iron does not prevent all
complications, directly regulate fetal heart rate, or replace protein.
Q4:
During a prenatal visit, a patient reports severe persistent vomiting, inability to tolerate fluids,
and decreased urine output. What should the nurse do?
A) Reassure the patient that vomiting is always normal
B) Encourage strenuous exercise
C) Assess for dehydration and notify the provider because severe vomiting may require
treatment
D) Tell the patient to stop all prenatal care
Rationale: The correct answer is C because persistent vomiting with poor fluid intake and
decreased urine output can cause dehydration and electrolyte abnormalities. A dismisses
potentially serious findings. B is inappropriate, and D unnecessarily interrupts essential
prenatal care.
Q5:
A pregnant patient reports constipation despite adequate fluid intake. Which nursing intervention
is most appropriate?
, 4|Page
A) Eliminate fiber
B) Restrict fluids
C) Encourage dietary fiber, appropriate fluid intake, and regular physical activity when not
contraindicated
D) Recommend prolonged bed rest
Rationale: The correct answer is C because fiber, fluids, and activity can help reduce
constipation during pregnancy. A and B can worsen constipation, while bed rest can reduce
bowel motility.
Q6:
A patient at 24 weeks' gestation reports dizziness when lying flat on her back. Which explanation
is most appropriate?
A) The fetus is experiencing hypoglycemia
B) The enlarged uterus can compress major blood vessels, reducing venous return when the
patient is supine
C) The symptom proves the patient has placenta previa
D) Supine positioning increases maternal cardiac output
Rationale: The correct answer is B because the gravid uterus can compress the inferior vena
cava when the patient is supine, reducing venous return and causing maternal hypotension or
dizziness. The other options do not explain the typical mechanism.
Q7:
Which position is generally most appropriate for a pregnant patient experiencing dizziness
related to supine positioning?
A) Flat supine
B) Prone
C) Side-lying, particularly left lateral positioning when appropriate
D) Trendelenburg for every episode
Rationale: The correct answer is C because lateral positioning can reduce vena cava
compression and improve venous return. Flat supine positioning can worsen the problem. Prone
positioning is inappropriate later in pregnancy, and Trendelenburg is not routinely required.
Q8:
A pregnant patient asks why blood pressure is monitored at every prenatal visit. Which
explanation is most appropriate?
A) Blood pressure is unrelated to pregnancy outcomes
B) Changes in blood pressure can indicate hypertensive disorders that may threaten maternal
NSG 3500 MATERNAL EXAM 2 REVIEW |
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS | 2026/27
UPDATED COMPLETE – GALEN
COLLEGE [QUESTION 1-100] AND
ANSWERS UPDATED 2026/2027 | 100%
VERIFIED | DETAILED RATIONALES –
PASS GUARANTEED A+ GRADED |
INSTANT DOWNLOAD
Study note: The following is an original practice set based on common maternal-newborn
nursing competencies. It is not an official Galen College exam, leaked exam content, or a
verified copy of the school's assessment.
INTRODUCTION
NSG 3500 Maternal Exam 2 Review is designed to help nursing students strengthen clinical
judgment across important maternal-newborn concepts commonly assessed in an intermediate
maternal nursing course. Students preparing for this type of examination need more than
memorization: they must recognize abnormal findings, prioritize maternal and fetal safety,
interpret assessment data, select appropriate interventions, and evaluate patient responses.
This practice question bank uses challenging, scenario-based multiple-choice questions that
emphasize application and clinical decision-making. Topics include antepartum assessment,
pregnancy complications, fetal surveillance, labor and delivery, medications, patient education,
and prioritization. Each question contains four answer choices and a detailed rationale explaining
the best answer and why the alternatives are less appropriate.
For effective preparation, answer each question without looking at the rationale, then review the
explanation carefully. Pay particular attention to questions involving prioritization, safety, and
changes from expected pregnancy findings. Repeating missed concepts and connecting
assessment findings with appropriate nursing interventions can help build stronger exam-
readiness and clinical reasoning skills.
CONTENT AREA OVERVIEW
,2|Page
Suggested
Content Area Questions Key Topics
Weight
Prenatal assessment, physiologic
Antepartum Assessment 1–15 15%
changes, screening
Hypertension, diabetes, bleeding,
Pregnancy Complications 16–30 15%
infections
Fetal Assessment 31–40 FHR, NST, BPP, fetal movement 10%
Labor stages, contractions, cervical
Labor Assessment 41–55 15%
changes
Pain management, positioning,
Intrapartum Nursing Care 56–70 15%
monitoring
Cord problems, fetal distress, uterine
Obstetric Emergencies 71–80 10%
complications
Maternal Medications 81–90 Oxytocin, magnesium sulfate, analgesia 10%
Patient Education & Safety, discharge teaching, clinical
91–100 10%
Prioritization judgment
QUESTIONS 1–100
ANTEPARTUM ASSESSMENT
Q1:
A pregnant patient at 10 weeks' gestation reports urinary frequency, breast tenderness, and
fatigue. Which interpretation by the nurse is most appropriate?
A) These findings indicate a pathologic pregnancy
B) These findings are commonly associated with physiologic changes of early pregnancy
C) These findings confirm ectopic pregnancy
D) These findings indicate impending miscarriage
Rationale: The correct answer is B because urinary frequency, breast tenderness, and fatigue
are common early-pregnancy findings. A is incorrect because the findings alone do not indicate
pathology. C is incorrect because ectopic pregnancy requires additional assessment findings. D
is incorrect because these symptoms do not by themselves indicate miscarriage.
Q2:
A patient at 12 weeks' gestation asks why folic acid is emphasized before and during early
pregnancy. Which response is most accurate?
,3|Page
A) It prevents all congenital abnormalities
B) It reduces the risk of neural tube defects when adequate intake occurs around conception and
early pregnancy
C) It prevents gestational diabetes
D) It eliminates the need for prenatal screening
Rationale: The correct answer is B because adequate folate around conception and early
pregnancy reduces the risk of neural tube defects. A is too broad because folate does not prevent
all abnormalities. C and D are unrelated to the primary purpose of folate supplementation.
Q3:
A pregnant patient asks why prenatal vitamins contain iron. Which response is best?
A) Iron prevents all pregnancy complications
B) Iron supports increased maternal red blood cell production and helps prevent iron-deficiency
anemia
C) Iron directly increases fetal heart rate
D) Iron replaces the need for dietary protein
Rationale: The correct answer is B because maternal blood volume and red blood cell
production increase during pregnancy, increasing iron requirements. Iron does not prevent all
complications, directly regulate fetal heart rate, or replace protein.
Q4:
During a prenatal visit, a patient reports severe persistent vomiting, inability to tolerate fluids,
and decreased urine output. What should the nurse do?
A) Reassure the patient that vomiting is always normal
B) Encourage strenuous exercise
C) Assess for dehydration and notify the provider because severe vomiting may require
treatment
D) Tell the patient to stop all prenatal care
Rationale: The correct answer is C because persistent vomiting with poor fluid intake and
decreased urine output can cause dehydration and electrolyte abnormalities. A dismisses
potentially serious findings. B is inappropriate, and D unnecessarily interrupts essential
prenatal care.
Q5:
A pregnant patient reports constipation despite adequate fluid intake. Which nursing intervention
is most appropriate?
, 4|Page
A) Eliminate fiber
B) Restrict fluids
C) Encourage dietary fiber, appropriate fluid intake, and regular physical activity when not
contraindicated
D) Recommend prolonged bed rest
Rationale: The correct answer is C because fiber, fluids, and activity can help reduce
constipation during pregnancy. A and B can worsen constipation, while bed rest can reduce
bowel motility.
Q6:
A patient at 24 weeks' gestation reports dizziness when lying flat on her back. Which explanation
is most appropriate?
A) The fetus is experiencing hypoglycemia
B) The enlarged uterus can compress major blood vessels, reducing venous return when the
patient is supine
C) The symptom proves the patient has placenta previa
D) Supine positioning increases maternal cardiac output
Rationale: The correct answer is B because the gravid uterus can compress the inferior vena
cava when the patient is supine, reducing venous return and causing maternal hypotension or
dizziness. The other options do not explain the typical mechanism.
Q7:
Which position is generally most appropriate for a pregnant patient experiencing dizziness
related to supine positioning?
A) Flat supine
B) Prone
C) Side-lying, particularly left lateral positioning when appropriate
D) Trendelenburg for every episode
Rationale: The correct answer is C because lateral positioning can reduce vena cava
compression and improve venous return. Flat supine positioning can worsen the problem. Prone
positioning is inappropriate later in pregnancy, and Trendelenburg is not routinely required.
Q8:
A pregnant patient asks why blood pressure is monitored at every prenatal visit. Which
explanation is most appropriate?
A) Blood pressure is unrelated to pregnancy outcomes
B) Changes in blood pressure can indicate hypertensive disorders that may threaten maternal
