Medical Office Procedures Review 2026–2027
Medical Office Procedures Review 2026–2027
Question 1
Which scheduling method books several patients at the start of the hour and sees them in the order of arrival?
A. Stream scheduling
B. Wave scheduling
C. Double booking
D. Clustering
Correct Answer: B. Wave scheduling
Rationale:
Wave scheduling accounts for the fact that some patients arrive late and some appointments run short.
Booking multiple patients at the top of the hour keeps the provider busy and absorbs no-shows and variations
in visit length.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
A.. Stream scheduling uses evenly spaced appointments (for example, every 20 minutes), not a group at the
start of the hour.
C.. Double booking places two patients in the same time slot. It is not the same as a wave across the hour.
D.. Clustering groups similar types of appointments (such as physicals) into a block, regardless of arrival order.
Question 2
A caller reports crushing chest pain radiating to the left arm with sweating and nausea. What should the medical
assistant do first?
A. Schedule the earliest available appointment tomorrow
B. Tell the caller to take an aspirin and call back in one hour
C. Instruct the caller to hang up and call 911 while alerting the provider
D. Transfer the caller to billing for insurance verification
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
These are classic signs of a possible myocardial infarction. Life-threatening symptoms are an emergency
requiring immediate activation of emergency medical services. Staff do not delay care for scheduling or
administrative tasks, and the provider should be notified at once.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
A.. Waiting until tomorrow could be fatal.
B.. Advising medication and a delayed callback is outside the scope of unlicensed staff and delays emergency
care.
D.. Insurance verification is irrelevant to an emergency and wastes critical time.
Question 3
Under a terminal-digit filing system, which pair of digits is the primary section for patient number 48-27-63?
A. 48
B. 27
C. 63
D. 4827
Medical Office Procedures Review 2026–2027 | Practice Resource • Page 1
, Medical Office Procedures Review 2026–2027
Correct Answer: C. 63
Rationale:
In terminal-digit filing, the number is read in pairs from right to left. The last (terminal) pair, 63, is the primary
section, then the middle pair (27) is the secondary section, and the first pair (48) is the tertiary section. This
spreads new records evenly across shelves and reduces misfiles.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
A.. 48 is the tertiary (third) section.
B.. 27 is the secondary (middle) section.
D.. Terminal-digit systems use paired digits, not four-digit groupings.
Question 4
What is the correct way to correct an error in a paper medical record?
A. Apply correction fluid and rewrite the entry
B. Erase the entry and write the correct information
C. Draw a single line through the error, write "error," and initial and date it
D. Remove the page and replace it with a new one
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
The medical record is a legal document. Corrections must leave the original entry legible so that it is clear
what was changed, by whom, and when. Altering a record improperly can be seen as tampering and may
undermine its credibility in court.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
A.. Correction fluid obscures the original entry.
B.. Erasing destroys the original text.
D.. Removing pages alters the legal record and may suggest concealment.
Question 5
A billing clerk needs to submit a claim to an insurer. Which principle limits the PHI the clerk should include?
A. Fidelity
B. Minimum necessary
C. Respondeat superior
D. Veracity
Correct Answer: B. Minimum necessary
Rationale:
HIPAA's minimum necessary standard requires covered entities to limit PHI used or disclosed to what is
needed to accomplish the purpose. Payment is a permitted purpose that does not need patient authorization,
but only the information required for the claim should be shared.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
A.. Fidelity is an ethical principle about faithfulness and keeping promises, not information limits.
C.. Respondeat superior is a legal doctrine about employer liability.
D.. Veracity refers to truthfulness, not limiting disclosure.
Question 6
Which disclosure requires the patient's written authorization?
A. Sending records to a specialist for referred treatment
B. Submitting a claim to the patient's health plan
Medical Office Procedures Review 2026–2027 | Practice Resource • Page 2
, Medical Office Procedures Review 2026–2027
C. Sending records to the patient's employer
D. Reporting a communicable disease to the public health department as required by law
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Disclosures outside treatment, payment, and health care operations (and outside legally required reporting)
generally need a valid written authorization. Employers are not covered by HIPAA in their role as employers
and are not entitled to a patient's records without authorization.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
A.. Disclosure for treatment is permitted without authorization.
B.. Payment activities are permitted without authorization.
D.. Legally required public-health reporting is an allowed exception.
Question 7
A patient requests a copy of their medical record. Under HIPAA, within what time frame must the practice
generally act on this request?
A. 24 hours
B. 7 days
C. 30 days
D. 90 days
Correct Answer: C. 30 days
Rationale:
HIPAA requires a covered entity to act on an access request no later than 30 days after receipt. One 30-day
extension is permitted if the patient is notified in writing of the reason and expected date. Some state laws set
shorter periods, and the shorter requirement applies.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
A.. There is no 24-hour requirement for routine record access.
B.. Seven days is not the federal standard (though a practice may choose to respond faster).
D.. Ninety days exceeds the allowed 30 days plus one 30-day extension.
Question 8
Who is responsible for obtaining informed consent for a surgical procedure?
A. The medical assistant who schedules the surgery
B. The receptionist who checks in the patient
C. The provider who will perform the procedure
D. The billing specialist
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Informed consent is a communication process requiring the provider to explain the nature of the procedure,
risks, benefits, and alternatives, and to answer questions. Staff may witness the signature or provide forms,
but cannot take over the explanation.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
A.. Medical assistants may not provide the explanation required for informed consent.
B.. Receptionists have no role in explaining clinical risks.
D.. Billing staff handle financial matters, not clinical consent.
Medical Office Procedures Review 2026–2027 | Practice Resource • Page 3
, Medical Office Procedures Review 2026–2027
Question 9
A 16-year-old who is legally emancipated comes in for treatment. Who may consent to the care?
A. Only a parent or guardian
B. Only a court-appointed attorney
C. The emancipated minor
D. The clinic manager
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Emancipated minors are treated as adults for most medical decisions and can consent to their own care. The
practice should verify and document emancipation status per policy and state law.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
A.. Parental consent is not required once emancipation is established.
B.. An attorney does not consent to medical treatment on the patient's behalf in this situation.
D.. A clinic manager has no legal authority to consent for a patient.
Question 10
Which set lists the four elements that must be proven in a negligence claim?
A. Duty, dereliction, direct cause, damages
B. Duty, defense, deposition, damages
C. Diagnosis, duty, delay, discharge
D. Disclosure, deceit, damages, discovery
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
The "4 Ds" of negligence are Duty (a relationship creating an obligation of care), Dereliction (breach of that
duty), Direct cause (the breach caused the harm), and Damages (actual injury or loss). All four must be
shown.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
B.. Defense and deposition are litigation terms, not elements of negligence.
C.. Diagnosis, delay, and discharge are not the legal elements.
D.. Deceit relates to fraud, and discovery is a pretrial process.
Question 11
A medical assistant, acting within their job duties, makes an error that harms a patient. Under the doctrine of
respondeat superior, who may be held liable?
A. Only the patient
B. The employer (such as the physician or practice), in addition to the employee
C. The insurance company only
D. No one, because the assistant is unlicensed
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Respondeat superior ("let the master answer") holds employers responsible for employees' negligent acts
within the scope of employment. This does not remove the employee's own responsibility.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
A.. The patient is the injured party, not a liable one.
C.. Insurers may cover costs but are not the primary subject of this doctrine.
Medical Office Procedures Review 2026–2027 | Practice Resource • Page 4
Medical Office Procedures Review 2026–2027
Question 1
Which scheduling method books several patients at the start of the hour and sees them in the order of arrival?
A. Stream scheduling
B. Wave scheduling
C. Double booking
D. Clustering
Correct Answer: B. Wave scheduling
Rationale:
Wave scheduling accounts for the fact that some patients arrive late and some appointments run short.
Booking multiple patients at the top of the hour keeps the provider busy and absorbs no-shows and variations
in visit length.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
A.. Stream scheduling uses evenly spaced appointments (for example, every 20 minutes), not a group at the
start of the hour.
C.. Double booking places two patients in the same time slot. It is not the same as a wave across the hour.
D.. Clustering groups similar types of appointments (such as physicals) into a block, regardless of arrival order.
Question 2
A caller reports crushing chest pain radiating to the left arm with sweating and nausea. What should the medical
assistant do first?
A. Schedule the earliest available appointment tomorrow
B. Tell the caller to take an aspirin and call back in one hour
C. Instruct the caller to hang up and call 911 while alerting the provider
D. Transfer the caller to billing for insurance verification
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
These are classic signs of a possible myocardial infarction. Life-threatening symptoms are an emergency
requiring immediate activation of emergency medical services. Staff do not delay care for scheduling or
administrative tasks, and the provider should be notified at once.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
A.. Waiting until tomorrow could be fatal.
B.. Advising medication and a delayed callback is outside the scope of unlicensed staff and delays emergency
care.
D.. Insurance verification is irrelevant to an emergency and wastes critical time.
Question 3
Under a terminal-digit filing system, which pair of digits is the primary section for patient number 48-27-63?
A. 48
B. 27
C. 63
D. 4827
Medical Office Procedures Review 2026–2027 | Practice Resource • Page 1
, Medical Office Procedures Review 2026–2027
Correct Answer: C. 63
Rationale:
In terminal-digit filing, the number is read in pairs from right to left. The last (terminal) pair, 63, is the primary
section, then the middle pair (27) is the secondary section, and the first pair (48) is the tertiary section. This
spreads new records evenly across shelves and reduces misfiles.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
A.. 48 is the tertiary (third) section.
B.. 27 is the secondary (middle) section.
D.. Terminal-digit systems use paired digits, not four-digit groupings.
Question 4
What is the correct way to correct an error in a paper medical record?
A. Apply correction fluid and rewrite the entry
B. Erase the entry and write the correct information
C. Draw a single line through the error, write "error," and initial and date it
D. Remove the page and replace it with a new one
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
The medical record is a legal document. Corrections must leave the original entry legible so that it is clear
what was changed, by whom, and when. Altering a record improperly can be seen as tampering and may
undermine its credibility in court.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
A.. Correction fluid obscures the original entry.
B.. Erasing destroys the original text.
D.. Removing pages alters the legal record and may suggest concealment.
Question 5
A billing clerk needs to submit a claim to an insurer. Which principle limits the PHI the clerk should include?
A. Fidelity
B. Minimum necessary
C. Respondeat superior
D. Veracity
Correct Answer: B. Minimum necessary
Rationale:
HIPAA's minimum necessary standard requires covered entities to limit PHI used or disclosed to what is
needed to accomplish the purpose. Payment is a permitted purpose that does not need patient authorization,
but only the information required for the claim should be shared.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
A.. Fidelity is an ethical principle about faithfulness and keeping promises, not information limits.
C.. Respondeat superior is a legal doctrine about employer liability.
D.. Veracity refers to truthfulness, not limiting disclosure.
Question 6
Which disclosure requires the patient's written authorization?
A. Sending records to a specialist for referred treatment
B. Submitting a claim to the patient's health plan
Medical Office Procedures Review 2026–2027 | Practice Resource • Page 2
, Medical Office Procedures Review 2026–2027
C. Sending records to the patient's employer
D. Reporting a communicable disease to the public health department as required by law
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Disclosures outside treatment, payment, and health care operations (and outside legally required reporting)
generally need a valid written authorization. Employers are not covered by HIPAA in their role as employers
and are not entitled to a patient's records without authorization.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
A.. Disclosure for treatment is permitted without authorization.
B.. Payment activities are permitted without authorization.
D.. Legally required public-health reporting is an allowed exception.
Question 7
A patient requests a copy of their medical record. Under HIPAA, within what time frame must the practice
generally act on this request?
A. 24 hours
B. 7 days
C. 30 days
D. 90 days
Correct Answer: C. 30 days
Rationale:
HIPAA requires a covered entity to act on an access request no later than 30 days after receipt. One 30-day
extension is permitted if the patient is notified in writing of the reason and expected date. Some state laws set
shorter periods, and the shorter requirement applies.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
A.. There is no 24-hour requirement for routine record access.
B.. Seven days is not the federal standard (though a practice may choose to respond faster).
D.. Ninety days exceeds the allowed 30 days plus one 30-day extension.
Question 8
Who is responsible for obtaining informed consent for a surgical procedure?
A. The medical assistant who schedules the surgery
B. The receptionist who checks in the patient
C. The provider who will perform the procedure
D. The billing specialist
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Informed consent is a communication process requiring the provider to explain the nature of the procedure,
risks, benefits, and alternatives, and to answer questions. Staff may witness the signature or provide forms,
but cannot take over the explanation.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
A.. Medical assistants may not provide the explanation required for informed consent.
B.. Receptionists have no role in explaining clinical risks.
D.. Billing staff handle financial matters, not clinical consent.
Medical Office Procedures Review 2026–2027 | Practice Resource • Page 3
, Medical Office Procedures Review 2026–2027
Question 9
A 16-year-old who is legally emancipated comes in for treatment. Who may consent to the care?
A. Only a parent or guardian
B. Only a court-appointed attorney
C. The emancipated minor
D. The clinic manager
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Emancipated minors are treated as adults for most medical decisions and can consent to their own care. The
practice should verify and document emancipation status per policy and state law.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
A.. Parental consent is not required once emancipation is established.
B.. An attorney does not consent to medical treatment on the patient's behalf in this situation.
D.. A clinic manager has no legal authority to consent for a patient.
Question 10
Which set lists the four elements that must be proven in a negligence claim?
A. Duty, dereliction, direct cause, damages
B. Duty, defense, deposition, damages
C. Diagnosis, duty, delay, discharge
D. Disclosure, deceit, damages, discovery
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
The "4 Ds" of negligence are Duty (a relationship creating an obligation of care), Dereliction (breach of that
duty), Direct cause (the breach caused the harm), and Damages (actual injury or loss). All four must be
shown.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
B.. Defense and deposition are litigation terms, not elements of negligence.
C.. Diagnosis, delay, and discharge are not the legal elements.
D.. Deceit relates to fraud, and discovery is a pretrial process.
Question 11
A medical assistant, acting within their job duties, makes an error that harms a patient. Under the doctrine of
respondeat superior, who may be held liable?
A. Only the patient
B. The employer (such as the physician or practice), in addition to the employee
C. The insurance company only
D. No one, because the assistant is unlicensed
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Respondeat superior ("let the master answer") holds employers responsible for employees' negligent acts
within the scope of employment. This does not remove the employee's own responsibility.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
A.. The patient is the injured party, not a liable one.
C.. Insurers may cover costs but are not the primary subject of this doctrine.
Medical Office Procedures Review 2026–2027 | Practice Resource • Page 4
