Pharmacy Technician Comprehensive Study Guide 2026–2027

Pharmacy Technician Comprehensive Study Guide 2026–2027

Pharmacy Technician Comprehensive Study Guide 2026–2027
Pharmacology, Safety & Practice Questions

Part 2: Practice Questions
Question 1
Which adverse effect is most characteristic of lisinopril?
A. Persistent dry cough
B. Tendon rupture
C. Gingival hyperplasia
D. Orange-colored urine
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor. ACE inhibitors prevent breakdown of bradykinin, which accumulates and
causes a dry, persistent cough in a notable share of patients. The pharmacist may switch the patient to an ARB.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect: B: Tendon rupture is a fluoroquinolone (e.g., ciprofloxacin) warning. C:
Gingival hyperplasia is associated with phenytoin and some calcium channel blockers. D: Orange urine is expected
with rifampin or phenazopyridine.


Question 2
A patient taking warfarin asks which food to limit. Which should the technician direct to the pharmacist because
it can lower warfarin's effect?
A. Large, inconsistent amounts of leafy greens such as kale
B. Plain rice
C. Skim milk
D. Apples
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Leafy greens are rich in vitamin K, which opposes warfarin and can lower INR. The goal is consistent
intake, not elimination. Counseling belongs to the pharmacist.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect: B, C, D: These foods contain little vitamin K and have no clinically significant
effect on warfarin.


Question 3
Metformin belongs to which drug class?
A. Sulfonylurea
B. Biguanide
C. Thiazolidinedione
D. DPP-4 inhibitor
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Metformin is a biguanide that lowers hepatic glucose production and improves insulin sensitivity, with a
low risk of hypoglycemia on its own.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect: A: Sulfonylureas (glipizide, glyburide) stimulate insulin release. C:
Thiazolidinediones (pioglitazone) are PPAR-gamma agonists. D: DPP-4 inhibitors (sitagliptin) end in -gliptin.


Pharmacy Technician Comprehensive Study Guide 2026–2027 | Practice Resource • Page 1

, Pharmacy Technician Comprehensive Study Guide 2026–2027
Question 4
Which DEA number is valid for prescriber "AB1234563"-style verification? Identify the valid number.
A. AB1234567
B. AB1234563
C. AB1234561
D. AB1234569
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Digits 1+3+5 = 1+3+5 = 9. Digits 2+4+6 = 2+4+6 = 12; doubled = 24. Total = 33. The last digit, 3, must equal
the seventh digit, so AB1234563 is valid.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect: A, C, D: Each ends in 7, 1, or 9, but the calculation yields 3, so the checksum
fails.


Question 5
A Schedule IV prescription is written with refills. What is the maximum allowed under federal law?
A. None
B. 2 refills in 3 months
C. 5 refills within 6 months
D. 11 refills within 12 months
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Federal law allows Schedule III and IV prescriptions to be refilled up to 5 times within 6 months of the date
written.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect: A: This describes Schedule II drugs. B: Not a federal limit. D: This applies to
many non-controlled drugs under state law, not to Schedule IV.


Question 6
Which order uses an item from the Joint Commission "Do Not Use" list?
A. Take 0.5 mg daily
B. Take 5.0 mg daily
C. Give 10 mL
D. Take 5 mg by mouth
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A trailing zero (5.0) can be misread as 50, risking a tenfold overdose. The correct form is 5 mg.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect: A: It has a leading zero, which is the correct format. C: "mL" is an acceptable
abbreviation. D: It is written clearly with no prohibited elements.


Question 7
Amoxicillin 500 mg: 1 capsule every 8 hours, dispense #30. What is the days' supply?




Pharmacy Technician Comprehensive Study Guide 2026–2027 | Practice Resource • Page 2

, Pharmacy Technician Comprehensive Study Guide 2026–2027
A. 5 days
B. 7 days
C. 10 days
D. 15 days
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Every 8 hours = 3 capsules/day. 30 ÷ 3 = 10 days.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect: A: Would require 6 capsules/day. B: Would be about 21 capsules. D: Would
apply to a twice-daily dose (30 ÷ 2).


Question 8
Infuse 1,000 mL over 8 hours using a 15 gtt/mL set. What is the drip rate?
A. 21 gtt/min
B. 31 gtt/min
C. 42 gtt/min
D. 125 gtt/min
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: 8 hours = 480 minutes. (1,000 × 15) ÷ 480 = 31.25, rounded to 31 gtt/min.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect: A: Results from using a wrong time or factor. C: Would correspond to roughly
a 6-hour infusion. D: This is the mL/hour rate (1,000 ÷ 8), not drops per minute.


Question 9
A child weighing 20 kg is prescribed 15 mg/kg/day divided every 8 hours. How many mg per dose?
A. 50 mg
B. 75 mg
C. 100 mg
D. 300 mg
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: 20 kg × 15 mg/kg = 300 mg/day. Every 8 hours = 3 doses, so 300 ÷ 3 = 100 mg.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect: A: Divides incorrectly. B: Would divide 300 mg into 4 doses. D: This is the total
daily dose.


Question 10
How many mL of 70% alcohol are needed to make 500 mL of 30% alcohol?
A. 150 mL
B. 214 mL
C. 250 mL
D. 286 mL
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: C₁V₁ = C₂V₂, so 70 × V₁ = 30 × 500, and V₁ = 15,000 ÷ 70 ≈ 214 mL. Add diluent to reach 500 mL.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect: A: Does not satisfy the equation. C: Would yield 35%. D: This is the amount of
diluent (500 − 214).



Pharmacy Technician Comprehensive Study Guide 2026–2027 | Practice Resource • Page 3