Test 2026/2027 | IICRC HST Certification Study
Guide, Occupational Health & Safety Questions &
Answers, GHS, Hazard Assessment, PPE, Hazard
Controls & Comprehensive Exam Prep
Question 1: Under OSHA regulations, what is the fundamental
difference between a "hazard" and a "risk" as applied to restoration job
sites?
A. A hazard is a potential source of harm, while risk is the probability of
harm occurring from that hazard.
B. A hazard is only related to chemical exposures, while risk applies solely
to physical injuries.
C. A hazard is the probability of harm, while risk is the severity of the injury
sustained.
D. A hazard is always visible, while risk is always invisible.
CORRECT ANSWER: A. A hazard is a potential source of harm, while
risk is the probability of harm occurring from that hazard.
Rationale: In occupational health and safety, a hazard is defined as any
source or situation with potential for harm. Risk refers to the chance or
probability that a person will be harmed if exposed to that hazard. This
distinction is foundational for hazard assessment and control
implementation.
Question 2: When conducting a job hazard analysis for a water damage
restoration project involving Category 3 water, which sequence
correctly represents the hierarchy of controls from most effective to
least effective?
A. PPE, administrative controls, engineering controls, substitution,
elimination
B. Elimination, substitution, engineering controls, administrative controls,
PPE
C. Administrative controls, PPE, elimination, substitution, engineering
controls
D. Engineering controls, elimination, PPE, substitution, administrative
controls
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Elimination, substitution, engineering controls,
administrative controls, PPE
,Rationale: The hierarchy of controls prioritizes eliminating the hazard
entirely as the most effective control, followed by substitution, engineering
controls, administrative controls, and finally PPE as the last line of defense.
This framework guides safety professionals in selecting the most protective
measures first.
Question 3: According to OSHA's Hazard Communication Standard
aligned with GHS, how many pictograms are used to communicate
physical, health, and environmental hazards on chemical labels?
A. Six
B. Seven
C. Nine
D. Twelve
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Nine
Rationale: The Globally Harmonized System uses nine standardized
pictograms to convey hazard information: health hazard, flame,
exclamation mark, gas cylinder, corrosion, exploding bomb, flame over
circle, skull and crossbones, and environment. These provide universal
visual hazard communication.
Question 4: A restoration technician must enter a confined space to
inspect a damaged sump pit. According to OSHA 1910.146, what is the
minimum oxygen concentration required for entry without respiratory
protection?
A. 16.5%
B. 18.0%
C. 19.5%
D. 21.0%
CORRECT ANSWER: C. 19.5%
Rationale: OSHA defines an oxygen-deficient atmosphere as any
atmosphere with oxygen concentration below 19.5% at sea level. Entry into
such spaces requires appropriate respiratory protection and adherence to
confined space entry procedures.
Question 5: When selecting a NIOSH-approved respirator for mold
remediation work, what is the minimum level of protection generally
recommended for most projects?
,A. Surgical mask
B. N95 filtering facepiece respirator
C. Half-face elastomeric with P100 cartridges
D. Powered air-purifying respirator
CORRECT ANSWER: B. N95 filtering facepiece respirator
Rationale: Public health agencies recommend at minimum a NIOSH-
approved N95 respirator for mold remediation jobs. For larger-scale
projects, trained remediation workers with medical clearance and proper
PPE should be employed, potentially requiring higher protection levels
based on exposure assessment.
Question 6: Under OSHA's Bloodborne Pathogens Standard, within
what timeframe must an employer offer the Hepatitis B vaccination to
an employee who has occupational exposure to blood or OPIM?
A. Within 24 hours of initial assignment
B. Within 10 working days of initial assignment
C. Within 30 calendar days of initial assignment
D. Within 90 calendar days of initial assignment
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Within 10 working days of initial assignment
Rationale: OSHA 1910.1030 requires that the Hepatitis B vaccine and
vaccination series be made available to all employees with occupational
exposure within 10 working days of initial assignment, at no cost to the
employee, unless the employee has previously received the complete
series or the vaccine is contraindicated for medical reasons.
Question 7: In the context of GHS hazard communication, which signal
word indicates a more severe hazard category?
A. Caution
B. Warning
C. Danger
D. Notice
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Danger
Rationale: GHS uses only two signal words: "Danger" and "Warning."
"Danger" indicates a more severe hazard category, while "Warning"
, indicates a less severe hazard. These signal words appear on chemical
labels to immediately communicate the level of hazard.
Question 8: According to OSHA's respiratory protection standard
1910.134, what is the assigned protection factor (APF) for a properly
fitted half-mask air-purifying respirator?
A. 5
B. 10
C. 25
D. 50
CORRECT ANSWER: B. 10
Rationale: The APF for a half-mask air-purifying respirator is 10, meaning
the respirator reduces the wearer's exposure to one-tenth of the ambient
concentration when properly fitted and used. This factor is critical for
selecting appropriate respiratory protection based on exposure levels.
Question 9: Which section of a Safety Data Sheet provides information
on exposure controls and personal protection?
A. Section 2
B. Section 4
C. Section 8
D. Section 11
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Section 8
Rationale: Under the GHS-aligned 16-section SDS format, Section 8
contains Exposure Controls/Personal Protection information, including
occupational exposure limits, engineering controls, and individual
protection measures such as PPE requirements.
Question 10: A restoration company must post the OSHA Form 300A
Summary of Work-Related Injuries and Illnesses for how long?
A. From January 1 to December 31
B. From February 1 to April 30
C. From March 1 to May 31
D. From April 1 to June 30
CORRECT ANSWER: B. From February 1 to April 30