NSG 530 ADVANCED
PATHOPHYSIOLOGY FINAL EXAM
QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED ANSWERS |
100% CORRECT | GRADE A+ - WILKES
1. A 55-year-old male with chronic hypertension exhibits thickening of the left ventricular
wall. Which cellular process best describes this adaptation?
A. Hyperplasia
B. Metaplasia
C. Hypertrophy
D. Dysplasia
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: Hypertrophy is an increase in the size of cells in response to
mechanical stimuli, such as high blood pressure in the heart, whereas hyperplasia is an
increase in the number of cells.
2. Which mechanism of cell death is characterized by programmed cell removal without an
inflammatory response?
A. Coagulative necrosis
B. Liquefactive necrosis
,C. Autophagy
D. Apoptosis
Answer: D
Conceptual Explanation: Apoptosis is an active, programmed process of cellular self-
destruction that does not typically elicit an inflammatory response, unlike necrosis.
3. In the context of epigenetics, what is the primary effect of DNA methylation on gene
expression?
A. Enhancement of transcription
B. Gene silencing
C. Increased protein translation
D. Chromatin relaxation
Answer: B
Conceptual Explanation: DNA methylation, particularly at CpG islands, typically leads to
gene silencing by preventing the binding of transcription factors.
4. A male child is diagnosed with Hemophilia A, an X-linked recessive disorder. From whom
did he most likely inherit the defective gene?
A. His father
B. A paternal uncle
C. Both parents
, D. His mother
Answer: D
Conceptual Explanation: Males inherit their X chromosome from their mother. Since
Hemophilia A is X-linked recessive, the son must have received the affected X chromosome
from his mother.
5. Which Starling force is primarily responsible for the development of edema in a patient
with liver failure and hypoalbuminemia?
A. Increased capillary hydrostatic pressure
B. Increased interstitial oncotic pressure
C. Decreased capillary oncotic pressure
D. Decreased interstitial hydrostatic pressure
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: Liver failure leads to decreased albumin production, which
reduces capillary oncotic pressure, allowing fluid to remain in or move into the interstitial
space.
6. A patient presents with a serum potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L. Which ECG change is most
characteristic of this condition?
A. Peaked T waves
B. Shortened QT interval
PATHOPHYSIOLOGY FINAL EXAM
QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED ANSWERS |
100% CORRECT | GRADE A+ - WILKES
1. A 55-year-old male with chronic hypertension exhibits thickening of the left ventricular
wall. Which cellular process best describes this adaptation?
A. Hyperplasia
B. Metaplasia
C. Hypertrophy
D. Dysplasia
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: Hypertrophy is an increase in the size of cells in response to
mechanical stimuli, such as high blood pressure in the heart, whereas hyperplasia is an
increase in the number of cells.
2. Which mechanism of cell death is characterized by programmed cell removal without an
inflammatory response?
A. Coagulative necrosis
B. Liquefactive necrosis
,C. Autophagy
D. Apoptosis
Answer: D
Conceptual Explanation: Apoptosis is an active, programmed process of cellular self-
destruction that does not typically elicit an inflammatory response, unlike necrosis.
3. In the context of epigenetics, what is the primary effect of DNA methylation on gene
expression?
A. Enhancement of transcription
B. Gene silencing
C. Increased protein translation
D. Chromatin relaxation
Answer: B
Conceptual Explanation: DNA methylation, particularly at CpG islands, typically leads to
gene silencing by preventing the binding of transcription factors.
4. A male child is diagnosed with Hemophilia A, an X-linked recessive disorder. From whom
did he most likely inherit the defective gene?
A. His father
B. A paternal uncle
C. Both parents
, D. His mother
Answer: D
Conceptual Explanation: Males inherit their X chromosome from their mother. Since
Hemophilia A is X-linked recessive, the son must have received the affected X chromosome
from his mother.
5. Which Starling force is primarily responsible for the development of edema in a patient
with liver failure and hypoalbuminemia?
A. Increased capillary hydrostatic pressure
B. Increased interstitial oncotic pressure
C. Decreased capillary oncotic pressure
D. Decreased interstitial hydrostatic pressure
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: Liver failure leads to decreased albumin production, which
reduces capillary oncotic pressure, allowing fluid to remain in or move into the interstitial
space.
6. A patient presents with a serum potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L. Which ECG change is most
characteristic of this condition?
A. Peaked T waves
B. Shortened QT interval
