NR566 ADVANCED PHARMACOLOGY
EXAM 2 PRACTICE (LATEST 2026/ 2027
UPDATE) QUESTIONS AND 100%
CORRECT VERIFIED ANSWERS| GRADE
A+
1. Which of the following classes of antihypertensives is specifically contraindicated in a
patient with a history of angioedema related to prior medication use?
A. Calcium Channel Blockers
B. Thiazide Diuretics
C. Beta-Blockers
D. Angiotensin-Converting Enzyme (ACE) Inhibitors
Answer: D
Conceptual Explanation: ACE inhibitors are well-known to cause angioedema due to the
accumulation of bradykinin. A history of angioedema from any cause is a contraindication
to ACE inhibitor therapy.
2. A patient with heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF) is prescribed
Spironolactone. Which electrolyte abnormality must the provider monitor for most closely?
A. Hypokalemia
,B. Hyponatremia
C. Hyperkalemia
D. Hypermagnesemia
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic (aldosterone
antagonist). Its primary electrolyte-related adverse effect is hyperkalemia, which can be
life-threatening.
3. What is the primary mechanism of action of Verapamil in treating supraventricular
tachycardias?
A. Calcium channel blockade in the SA and AV nodes
B. Beta-1 adrenergic receptor antagonism
C. Sodium channel blockade in the His-Purkinje system
D. Inhibition of the Na+/K+ ATPase pump
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: Verapamil is a non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker
that acts directly on the SA and AV nodes to slow conduction and heart rate.
4. Which side effect is uniquely associated with the use of Nifedipine compared to Diltiazem?
A. Bradycardia
B. AV block
, C. Constipation
D. Peripheral edema
Answer: D
Conceptual Explanation: Nifedipine is a dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker, which
causes significant vasodilation, often leading to reflex tachycardia and peripheral edema.
Diltiazem is more likely to cause bradycardia.
5. A patient on Warfarin therapy has an INR of 1.5. The target range is 2.0 to 3.0. How should
the clinician adjust the dose?
A. Decrease the weekly dose by 10-20%
B. Increase the weekly dose by 10-20%
C. Maintain the current dose and recheck in one month
D. Administer Vitamin K intramuscularly
Answer: B
Conceptual Explanation: An INR of 1.5 is subtherapeutic. To reach the target range of 2.0-
3.0, the total weekly dose typically needs to be increased by approximately 10-20%.
6. Which anticoagulant is the preferred choice for a pregnant woman requiring treatment for
deep vein thrombosis?
A. Warfarin
B. Rivaroxaban
EXAM 2 PRACTICE (LATEST 2026/ 2027
UPDATE) QUESTIONS AND 100%
CORRECT VERIFIED ANSWERS| GRADE
A+
1. Which of the following classes of antihypertensives is specifically contraindicated in a
patient with a history of angioedema related to prior medication use?
A. Calcium Channel Blockers
B. Thiazide Diuretics
C. Beta-Blockers
D. Angiotensin-Converting Enzyme (ACE) Inhibitors
Answer: D
Conceptual Explanation: ACE inhibitors are well-known to cause angioedema due to the
accumulation of bradykinin. A history of angioedema from any cause is a contraindication
to ACE inhibitor therapy.
2. A patient with heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF) is prescribed
Spironolactone. Which electrolyte abnormality must the provider monitor for most closely?
A. Hypokalemia
,B. Hyponatremia
C. Hyperkalemia
D. Hypermagnesemia
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic (aldosterone
antagonist). Its primary electrolyte-related adverse effect is hyperkalemia, which can be
life-threatening.
3. What is the primary mechanism of action of Verapamil in treating supraventricular
tachycardias?
A. Calcium channel blockade in the SA and AV nodes
B. Beta-1 adrenergic receptor antagonism
C. Sodium channel blockade in the His-Purkinje system
D. Inhibition of the Na+/K+ ATPase pump
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: Verapamil is a non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker
that acts directly on the SA and AV nodes to slow conduction and heart rate.
4. Which side effect is uniquely associated with the use of Nifedipine compared to Diltiazem?
A. Bradycardia
B. AV block
, C. Constipation
D. Peripheral edema
Answer: D
Conceptual Explanation: Nifedipine is a dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker, which
causes significant vasodilation, often leading to reflex tachycardia and peripheral edema.
Diltiazem is more likely to cause bradycardia.
5. A patient on Warfarin therapy has an INR of 1.5. The target range is 2.0 to 3.0. How should
the clinician adjust the dose?
A. Decrease the weekly dose by 10-20%
B. Increase the weekly dose by 10-20%
C. Maintain the current dose and recheck in one month
D. Administer Vitamin K intramuscularly
Answer: B
Conceptual Explanation: An INR of 1.5 is subtherapeutic. To reach the target range of 2.0-
3.0, the total weekly dose typically needs to be increased by approximately 10-20%.
6. Which anticoagulant is the preferred choice for a pregnant woman requiring treatment for
deep vein thrombosis?
A. Warfarin
B. Rivaroxaban
