LATEST KETTERING NPS EXAM 300 ACTUAL
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS WITH
RATIONALE LATEST UPDATE ALREADY
GRADED A+ BRAND NEW!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!
This Kettering NPS Exam question bank provides 300 unique multiple-choice
questions covering patient assessment, airway management, mechanical
ventilation, neonatal pathophysiology, and pediatric pathophysiology. Each
question includes four answer choices, the correct answer, and a detailed rationale
explaining the clinical principle. The content is drawn from verified Kettering NPS
study materials and reflects the format and difficulty of the actual certification
exam. Questions are organized into five sections for systematic review. Topics
include Dubowitz scoring, L/S ratios, transillumination, ETT sizing, ventilator
settings, RDS, PPHN, meconium aspiration, croup, epiglottitis, asthma
management, and neonatal resuscitation. This resource supports comprehensive
preparation for the Neonatal/Pediatric Respiratory Care Specialty certification
exam.
Section 1: Patient Assessment (Questions 1-60)
Question 1
A newborn has a Dubowitz score of 34. This indicates:
A. High probability of pulmonary maturity
B. A pre-term infant
C. Low risk of respiratory distress
D. Intrauterine growth retardation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A Dubowitz score of 34 corresponds to a gestational age of
approximately 34 weeks, indicating a pre-term infant at increased risk for
respiratory distress, hypothermia, and other complications .
Question 2
,The neonatal/pediatric specialist attends a high-risk delivery in which the
newborn's buttocks and lower extremities present first. This fetal presentation is
best referred to as:
A. Complete breech
B. Frank breech
C. Incomplete breech
D. Transverse lie
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A complete breech presentation occurs when the buttocks and lower
extremities present first. Frank breech involves only the buttocks presenting first.
Incomplete breech (footling breech) involves only the feet presenting first.
Transverse lie involves the shoulder presenting first .
Question 3
Protruding intestines contained within a translucent membrane or sac best
describes which of the following conditions?
A. Gastroschisis
B. Omphalocele
C. Myelomeningocele
D. DiGeorge Syndrome
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: An omphalocele is a congenital abdominal wall defect where the
intestines protrude through the umbilicus and are contained within a translucent
membrane or sac. Gastroschisis involves intestines protruding through a defect in
the abdominal wall without a covering membrane .
Question 4
Which bedside tool is most accurate for estimating gestational age in a newborn?
A. Apgar score
B. Ballard/Dubowitz score
C. Birth weight
D. Capillary refill time
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The Ballard (or Dubowitz) score combines physical and neurologic
criteria to reliably estimate gestational age. The Apgar score assesses newborn
condition at birth, birth weight is a growth parameter, and capillary refill time
assesses perfusion .
Question 5
,A 24-year-old female is admitted to Labor & Delivery in early labor. While
reviewing the past medical history, the neonatal-pediatric specialist notes that the
patient is para 2 and gravida 3. The correct interpretation of these findings is:
A. Third pregnancy and two previous live births
B. First pregnancy and three previous live births
C. Second pregnancy and three previous live births
D. Third pregnancy and three previous live births
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Gravida refers to the total number of pregnancies, including the current
one. Para refers to the number of births after 20 weeks gestation. Para 2 and
gravida 3 means the patient is in her third pregnancy and has had two previous live
births .
Question 6
Following a motor vehicle accident, an 11-year-old girl presents with a Glasgow
Coma Scale of ten (10). This would indicate:
A. No head injury
B. Mild head injury
C. Moderate head injury
D. Severe head injury
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A GCS of 9-12 indicates moderate brain injury. GCS 3-8 indicates
severe head injury, and GCS 13-15 indicates mild head injury .
Question 7
Which of the following should the neonatal/pediatric specialist suspect in a 1-year-
old child with a gradual onset of symptoms?
A. Foreign body aspiration
B. Asthma
C. Respiratory Syncytial Virus
D. Epiglottitis
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Respiratory Syncytial Virus (RSV) typically presents with a gradual
onset of symptoms, unlike foreign body aspiration or epiglottitis, which have more
sudden onsets .
Question 8
A newborn infant has a Ballard score of 34. What does this indicate?
A. High probability of pulmonary maturity
B. A pre-term infant
, C. Low risk of respiratory distress
D. Intrauterine growth retardation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A Ballard score of 34 corresponds to a gestational age of approximately
34 weeks, indicating a pre-term infant at increased risk for respiratory distress,
hypothermia, and other complications .
Question 9
What are the four critical life functions assessed in a neonate?
A. Heart rate, respiratory rate, temperature, blood pressure
B. Ventilation, oxygenation, circulation, temperature regulation
C. Ventilation, oxygenation, perfusion, airway patency
D. Airway, breathing, circulation, disability
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The four critical life functions are ventilation, oxygenation, perfusion,
and airway patency. These form the foundation of patient assessment .
Question 10
High risk maternal age is defined as:
A. Under 16 or over 40
B. Under 18 or over 35
C. Under 20 or over 45
D. Under 15 or over 40
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: High-risk maternal age is defined as less than 16 years or greater than
40 years .
Question 11
A teratogenic effect of fetal alcohol syndrome includes:
A. Facial anomalies, growth restriction, CNS dysfunction
B. Cardiac defects and limb abnormalities
C. Neural tube defects and cleft palate
D. Renal agenesis and limb defects
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Fetal alcohol syndrome is characterized by facial anomalies, growth
restriction, and central nervous system dysfunction .
Question 12
The L/S ratio is used to assess:
A. Lung maturity
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS WITH
RATIONALE LATEST UPDATE ALREADY
GRADED A+ BRAND NEW!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!
This Kettering NPS Exam question bank provides 300 unique multiple-choice
questions covering patient assessment, airway management, mechanical
ventilation, neonatal pathophysiology, and pediatric pathophysiology. Each
question includes four answer choices, the correct answer, and a detailed rationale
explaining the clinical principle. The content is drawn from verified Kettering NPS
study materials and reflects the format and difficulty of the actual certification
exam. Questions are organized into five sections for systematic review. Topics
include Dubowitz scoring, L/S ratios, transillumination, ETT sizing, ventilator
settings, RDS, PPHN, meconium aspiration, croup, epiglottitis, asthma
management, and neonatal resuscitation. This resource supports comprehensive
preparation for the Neonatal/Pediatric Respiratory Care Specialty certification
exam.
Section 1: Patient Assessment (Questions 1-60)
Question 1
A newborn has a Dubowitz score of 34. This indicates:
A. High probability of pulmonary maturity
B. A pre-term infant
C. Low risk of respiratory distress
D. Intrauterine growth retardation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A Dubowitz score of 34 corresponds to a gestational age of
approximately 34 weeks, indicating a pre-term infant at increased risk for
respiratory distress, hypothermia, and other complications .
Question 2
,The neonatal/pediatric specialist attends a high-risk delivery in which the
newborn's buttocks and lower extremities present first. This fetal presentation is
best referred to as:
A. Complete breech
B. Frank breech
C. Incomplete breech
D. Transverse lie
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A complete breech presentation occurs when the buttocks and lower
extremities present first. Frank breech involves only the buttocks presenting first.
Incomplete breech (footling breech) involves only the feet presenting first.
Transverse lie involves the shoulder presenting first .
Question 3
Protruding intestines contained within a translucent membrane or sac best
describes which of the following conditions?
A. Gastroschisis
B. Omphalocele
C. Myelomeningocele
D. DiGeorge Syndrome
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: An omphalocele is a congenital abdominal wall defect where the
intestines protrude through the umbilicus and are contained within a translucent
membrane or sac. Gastroschisis involves intestines protruding through a defect in
the abdominal wall without a covering membrane .
Question 4
Which bedside tool is most accurate for estimating gestational age in a newborn?
A. Apgar score
B. Ballard/Dubowitz score
C. Birth weight
D. Capillary refill time
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The Ballard (or Dubowitz) score combines physical and neurologic
criteria to reliably estimate gestational age. The Apgar score assesses newborn
condition at birth, birth weight is a growth parameter, and capillary refill time
assesses perfusion .
Question 5
,A 24-year-old female is admitted to Labor & Delivery in early labor. While
reviewing the past medical history, the neonatal-pediatric specialist notes that the
patient is para 2 and gravida 3. The correct interpretation of these findings is:
A. Third pregnancy and two previous live births
B. First pregnancy and three previous live births
C. Second pregnancy and three previous live births
D. Third pregnancy and three previous live births
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Gravida refers to the total number of pregnancies, including the current
one. Para refers to the number of births after 20 weeks gestation. Para 2 and
gravida 3 means the patient is in her third pregnancy and has had two previous live
births .
Question 6
Following a motor vehicle accident, an 11-year-old girl presents with a Glasgow
Coma Scale of ten (10). This would indicate:
A. No head injury
B. Mild head injury
C. Moderate head injury
D. Severe head injury
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A GCS of 9-12 indicates moderate brain injury. GCS 3-8 indicates
severe head injury, and GCS 13-15 indicates mild head injury .
Question 7
Which of the following should the neonatal/pediatric specialist suspect in a 1-year-
old child with a gradual onset of symptoms?
A. Foreign body aspiration
B. Asthma
C. Respiratory Syncytial Virus
D. Epiglottitis
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Respiratory Syncytial Virus (RSV) typically presents with a gradual
onset of symptoms, unlike foreign body aspiration or epiglottitis, which have more
sudden onsets .
Question 8
A newborn infant has a Ballard score of 34. What does this indicate?
A. High probability of pulmonary maturity
B. A pre-term infant
, C. Low risk of respiratory distress
D. Intrauterine growth retardation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A Ballard score of 34 corresponds to a gestational age of approximately
34 weeks, indicating a pre-term infant at increased risk for respiratory distress,
hypothermia, and other complications .
Question 9
What are the four critical life functions assessed in a neonate?
A. Heart rate, respiratory rate, temperature, blood pressure
B. Ventilation, oxygenation, circulation, temperature regulation
C. Ventilation, oxygenation, perfusion, airway patency
D. Airway, breathing, circulation, disability
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The four critical life functions are ventilation, oxygenation, perfusion,
and airway patency. These form the foundation of patient assessment .
Question 10
High risk maternal age is defined as:
A. Under 16 or over 40
B. Under 18 or over 35
C. Under 20 or over 45
D. Under 15 or over 40
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: High-risk maternal age is defined as less than 16 years or greater than
40 years .
Question 11
A teratogenic effect of fetal alcohol syndrome includes:
A. Facial anomalies, growth restriction, CNS dysfunction
B. Cardiac defects and limb abnormalities
C. Neural tube defects and cleft palate
D. Renal agenesis and limb defects
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Fetal alcohol syndrome is characterized by facial anomalies, growth
restriction, and central nervous system dysfunction .
Question 12
The L/S ratio is used to assess:
A. Lung maturity
