Actual ATI RN Fundamentals 2026 Proctored Exam
with NGN 70 Questions and Answers Top Score
Level 3 RN ATI Fundamentals Nursing 2026
Assessment Per ATI Marking Scheme
SECTION I — Health Care Delivery & Nursing Process (Q1–15)
1. A nurse is using the nursing process to care for a newly admitted client. Which action should
the nurse take first?
A. Develop a plan of care
B. Collect subjective and objective data
C. Implement nursing interventions
D. Evaluate client outcomes
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Assessment is the first step of the nursing process. Data collection must precede
planning, implementation, and evaluation. Without a complete database, subsequent steps lack
foundation.
2. Which of the following are components of a complete nursing health history? (SATA)
A. Chief complaint
B. Past medical history
C. Family history
D. Insurance billing code
E. Review of systems
Correct Answers: A, B, C, E
Rationale: A comprehensive health history includes the chief complaint, past
medical/surgical history, family history, and review of systems. Insurance billing codes are
administrative data, not part of the clinical nursing history.
3. A nurse is evaluating a client's outcome after teaching about a low-sodium diet. Which
statement indicates the teaching was effective?
A. "I will use salt substitutes that contain potassium."
B. "I will read food labels for sodium content."
,C. "I will add soy sauce instead of table salt."
D. "I will eat canned soups because they are convenient."
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Reading labels for sodium content demonstrates understanding of sodium
restriction. Soy sauce and canned soups are high in sodium; potassium-containing salt
substitutes may be unsafe in renal impairment.
4. The nurse is applying the SMART framework to a client goal. Which goal is written correctly?
A. "Client will feel better by tomorrow."
B. "Client will ambulate 50 feet with a walker by 10/15."
C. "Client will improve mobility."
D. "Client will be less anxious."
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: SMART goals are Specific, Measurable, Attainable, Realistic, and Time-bound.
"Ambulate 50 feet with a walker by 10/15" meets all criteria. The others are vague and
unmeasurable.
5. A nurse is reviewing primary, secondary, and tertiary levels of prevention. Which is an
example of primary prevention?
A. Mammography screening
B. Immunization against influenza
C. Cardiac rehabilitation after MI
D. Physical therapy after stroke
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Primary prevention prevents disease before it occurs (immunizations, health
education). Screening is secondary prevention; rehabilitation is tertiary prevention.
6. Which nurse is functioning in an expanded role?
A. Staff nurse administering medications
B. Nurse practitioner prescribing medications
C. LPN providing wound care
D. Nurse aide obtaining vital signs
, Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The nurse practitioner role is an advanced practice expanded role that includes
diagnosing, prescribing, and managing care. Staff nursing and LPN roles are basic/technical;
nurse aides are unlicensed assistive personnel.
7. A nurse manager is delegating tasks. Which task is appropriate to delegate to unlicensed
assistive personnel (UAP)?
A. Administering oral medications
B. Assessing a new client's pain
C. Measuring and recording intake and output
D. Teaching a client about insulin
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Measuring I&O is a routine, predictable task within UAP scope. Medication
administration, assessment, and teaching require a licensed nurse.
8. The nurse is using critical thinking to prioritize care. Which client should the nurse see first?
A. Client requesting pain medication for chronic back pain rated 6/10
B. Client with new-onset shortness of breath and oxygen saturation 86%
C. Client needing discharge teaching
D. Client requesting a blanket
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Using Maslow's hierarchy and ABC priority framework, airway/breathing takes
precedence. New hypoxemia is an immediate threat to life.
9. Which statement best describes evidence-based practice (EBP)?
A. Using tradition to guide nursing care
B. Integrating best research evidence with clinical expertise and client values
C. Following physician orders without question
D. Using intuition alone to make decisions
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: EBP integrates the best available research, clinical expertise, and patient
preferences/values. It is not tradition, blind obedience, or intuition alone.
, 10. A nurse is documenting in the electronic health record. Which entry is appropriate?
A. "Client is being difficult about medications."
B. "Client refused 0900 metformin; stated 'I don't want it.' Notified provider."
C. "Client seems like a drug seeker."
D. "Client is noncompliant as usual."
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Documentation must be objective, factual, timely, and nonjudgmental. Quoting
the client and documenting notifications is appropriate. The other options are subjective and
biased.
11. Which are core ethical principles in nursing? (SATA)
A. Autonomy
B. Beneficence
C. Nonmaleficence
D. Justice
E. Profitability
Correct Answers: A, B, C, D
Rationale: Autonomy, beneficence, nonmaleficence, justice (and fidelity, veracity) are core
ethical principles. Profitability is not an ethical principle of nursing.
12. A client with terminal cancer asks the nurse, "Will I get better?" The nurse responds, "You
are asking a very important question." This response is an example of:
A. False reassurance
B. Therapeutic communication (clarifying/acknowledging)
C. Changing the subject
D. Giving advice
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Acknowledging the client's concern and inviting further expression is
therapeutic. False reassurance ("You'll be fine") is nontherapeutic.
with NGN 70 Questions and Answers Top Score
Level 3 RN ATI Fundamentals Nursing 2026
Assessment Per ATI Marking Scheme
SECTION I — Health Care Delivery & Nursing Process (Q1–15)
1. A nurse is using the nursing process to care for a newly admitted client. Which action should
the nurse take first?
A. Develop a plan of care
B. Collect subjective and objective data
C. Implement nursing interventions
D. Evaluate client outcomes
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Assessment is the first step of the nursing process. Data collection must precede
planning, implementation, and evaluation. Without a complete database, subsequent steps lack
foundation.
2. Which of the following are components of a complete nursing health history? (SATA)
A. Chief complaint
B. Past medical history
C. Family history
D. Insurance billing code
E. Review of systems
Correct Answers: A, B, C, E
Rationale: A comprehensive health history includes the chief complaint, past
medical/surgical history, family history, and review of systems. Insurance billing codes are
administrative data, not part of the clinical nursing history.
3. A nurse is evaluating a client's outcome after teaching about a low-sodium diet. Which
statement indicates the teaching was effective?
A. "I will use salt substitutes that contain potassium."
B. "I will read food labels for sodium content."
,C. "I will add soy sauce instead of table salt."
D. "I will eat canned soups because they are convenient."
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Reading labels for sodium content demonstrates understanding of sodium
restriction. Soy sauce and canned soups are high in sodium; potassium-containing salt
substitutes may be unsafe in renal impairment.
4. The nurse is applying the SMART framework to a client goal. Which goal is written correctly?
A. "Client will feel better by tomorrow."
B. "Client will ambulate 50 feet with a walker by 10/15."
C. "Client will improve mobility."
D. "Client will be less anxious."
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: SMART goals are Specific, Measurable, Attainable, Realistic, and Time-bound.
"Ambulate 50 feet with a walker by 10/15" meets all criteria. The others are vague and
unmeasurable.
5. A nurse is reviewing primary, secondary, and tertiary levels of prevention. Which is an
example of primary prevention?
A. Mammography screening
B. Immunization against influenza
C. Cardiac rehabilitation after MI
D. Physical therapy after stroke
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Primary prevention prevents disease before it occurs (immunizations, health
education). Screening is secondary prevention; rehabilitation is tertiary prevention.
6. Which nurse is functioning in an expanded role?
A. Staff nurse administering medications
B. Nurse practitioner prescribing medications
C. LPN providing wound care
D. Nurse aide obtaining vital signs
, Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The nurse practitioner role is an advanced practice expanded role that includes
diagnosing, prescribing, and managing care. Staff nursing and LPN roles are basic/technical;
nurse aides are unlicensed assistive personnel.
7. A nurse manager is delegating tasks. Which task is appropriate to delegate to unlicensed
assistive personnel (UAP)?
A. Administering oral medications
B. Assessing a new client's pain
C. Measuring and recording intake and output
D. Teaching a client about insulin
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Measuring I&O is a routine, predictable task within UAP scope. Medication
administration, assessment, and teaching require a licensed nurse.
8. The nurse is using critical thinking to prioritize care. Which client should the nurse see first?
A. Client requesting pain medication for chronic back pain rated 6/10
B. Client with new-onset shortness of breath and oxygen saturation 86%
C. Client needing discharge teaching
D. Client requesting a blanket
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Using Maslow's hierarchy and ABC priority framework, airway/breathing takes
precedence. New hypoxemia is an immediate threat to life.
9. Which statement best describes evidence-based practice (EBP)?
A. Using tradition to guide nursing care
B. Integrating best research evidence with clinical expertise and client values
C. Following physician orders without question
D. Using intuition alone to make decisions
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: EBP integrates the best available research, clinical expertise, and patient
preferences/values. It is not tradition, blind obedience, or intuition alone.
, 10. A nurse is documenting in the electronic health record. Which entry is appropriate?
A. "Client is being difficult about medications."
B. "Client refused 0900 metformin; stated 'I don't want it.' Notified provider."
C. "Client seems like a drug seeker."
D. "Client is noncompliant as usual."
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Documentation must be objective, factual, timely, and nonjudgmental. Quoting
the client and documenting notifications is appropriate. The other options are subjective and
biased.
11. Which are core ethical principles in nursing? (SATA)
A. Autonomy
B. Beneficence
C. Nonmaleficence
D. Justice
E. Profitability
Correct Answers: A, B, C, D
Rationale: Autonomy, beneficence, nonmaleficence, justice (and fidelity, veracity) are core
ethical principles. Profitability is not an ethical principle of nursing.
12. A client with terminal cancer asks the nurse, "Will I get better?" The nurse responds, "You
are asking a very important question." This response is an example of:
A. False reassurance
B. Therapeutic communication (clarifying/acknowledging)
C. Changing the subject
D. Giving advice
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Acknowledging the client's concern and inviting further expression is
therapeutic. False reassurance ("You'll be fine") is nontherapeutic.
