NURS 5334 Advanced Pharmacology Final Exam Prep:
200 Practice Questions & Answers
This specialized graduate-level nursing study guide features 200 targeted practice
questions and verified answers designed specifically for the NURS 5334 Advanced
Pharmacology final examination. It delivers comprehensive master's-level coverage of
critical pharmacotherapeutic principles, including complex pharmacokinetic modeling,
drug-drug interactions, and clinical prescriptive logic across diverse lifespan
populations. Advanced practice nursing students will master high-alert medication
protocols, receptor site dynamics, and monitoring parameters to secure a passing score
on their proctored final assessment.
1. A patient is prescribed lisinopril. Which laboratory value should the nurse
monitor most closely?
A) Serum sodium
B) Serum potassium
C) Serum calcium
D) Serum magnesium
Rationale: ACE inhibitors like lisinopril can cause hyperkalemia by reducing aldosterone
secretion; monitor potassium levels closely.
2. Which medication is considered first-line for treating an acute migraine attack?
A) Propranolol
B) Sumatriptan
C) Amitriptyline
D) Topiramate
Rationale: Triptans like sumatriptan are first-line for acute migraine relief; they work by
stimulating serotonin receptors to constrict cranial vessels.
,3. A patient on warfarin has an INR of 5.5. Which action should the nurse take?
A) Continue the current dose
B) Hold the warfarin and notify the provider
C) Administer vitamin K immediately
D) Increase the warfarin dose
Rationale: An INR of 5.5 is supratherapeutic and increases bleeding risk; hold the drug and
notify the provider for further instructions.
4. Which medication is a beta-1 selective blocker?
A) Propranolol
B) Metoprolol
C) Carvedilol
D) Labetalol
Rationale: Metoprolol is beta-1 selective, primarily affecting the heart; propranolol and
carvedilol are non-selective.
5. A patient is prescribed metformin. Which instruction should the nurse include?
A) Take with alcohol
B) Hold before contrast dye procedures
C) Take on an empty stomach
D) Stop if glucose normalizes
Rationale: Metformin increases the risk of lactic acidosis with contrast dye; hold before and
48 hours after procedures.
6. Which drug is used to reverse opioid overdose?
A) Flumazenil
B) Naloxone
C) Atropine
D) Protamine sulfate
,Rationale: Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used to reverse respiratory depression and
overdose.
7. A patient on digoxin has a heart rate of 52 bpm. Which action should the nurse
take?
A) Administer the digoxin
B) Hold the digoxin and notify the provider
C) Increase the digoxin dose
D) Document and continue
Rationale: Digoxin should be held for a heart rate below 60 bpm in adults; bradycardia
may indicate toxicity.
8. Which antibiotic class is associated with tendon rupture?
A) Penicillins
B) Fluoroquinolones
C) Macrolides
D) Tetracyclines
Rationale: Fluoroquinolones like ciprofloxacin and levofloxacin increase the risk of
tendinitis and tendon rupture.
9. A patient is prescribed levothyroxine. Which instruction is correct?
A) Take with breakfast
B) Take on an empty stomach 30–60 minutes before breakfast
C) Take at bedtime
D) Take with calcium supplements
Rationale: Levothyroxine absorption is best on an empty stomach; separate from calcium
and iron by 4 hours.
, 10. Which medication is a potassium-sparing diuretic?
A) Furosemide
B) Hydrochlorothiazide
C) Spironolactone
D) Bumetanide
Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that antagonizes aldosterone;
monitor for hyperkalemia.
11. A patient is prescribed atorvastatin. Which laboratory value should be
monitored?
A) Serum potassium
B) Liver function tests
C) Serum sodium
D) Serum calcium
Rationale: Statins can cause hepatotoxicity; monitor liver function tests periodically.
12. Which medication is used for acute bronchospasm in asthma?
A) Fluticasone
B) Albuterol
C) Montelukast
D) Prednisone
Rationale: Albuterol is a short-acting beta-2 agonist used for acute relief of bronchospasm.
13. A patient is prescribed amoxicillin. Which side effect is most common?
A) Tendon rupture
B) Diarrhea
C) Nephrotoxicity
D) Ototoxicity
200 Practice Questions & Answers
This specialized graduate-level nursing study guide features 200 targeted practice
questions and verified answers designed specifically for the NURS 5334 Advanced
Pharmacology final examination. It delivers comprehensive master's-level coverage of
critical pharmacotherapeutic principles, including complex pharmacokinetic modeling,
drug-drug interactions, and clinical prescriptive logic across diverse lifespan
populations. Advanced practice nursing students will master high-alert medication
protocols, receptor site dynamics, and monitoring parameters to secure a passing score
on their proctored final assessment.
1. A patient is prescribed lisinopril. Which laboratory value should the nurse
monitor most closely?
A) Serum sodium
B) Serum potassium
C) Serum calcium
D) Serum magnesium
Rationale: ACE inhibitors like lisinopril can cause hyperkalemia by reducing aldosterone
secretion; monitor potassium levels closely.
2. Which medication is considered first-line for treating an acute migraine attack?
A) Propranolol
B) Sumatriptan
C) Amitriptyline
D) Topiramate
Rationale: Triptans like sumatriptan are first-line for acute migraine relief; they work by
stimulating serotonin receptors to constrict cranial vessels.
,3. A patient on warfarin has an INR of 5.5. Which action should the nurse take?
A) Continue the current dose
B) Hold the warfarin and notify the provider
C) Administer vitamin K immediately
D) Increase the warfarin dose
Rationale: An INR of 5.5 is supratherapeutic and increases bleeding risk; hold the drug and
notify the provider for further instructions.
4. Which medication is a beta-1 selective blocker?
A) Propranolol
B) Metoprolol
C) Carvedilol
D) Labetalol
Rationale: Metoprolol is beta-1 selective, primarily affecting the heart; propranolol and
carvedilol are non-selective.
5. A patient is prescribed metformin. Which instruction should the nurse include?
A) Take with alcohol
B) Hold before contrast dye procedures
C) Take on an empty stomach
D) Stop if glucose normalizes
Rationale: Metformin increases the risk of lactic acidosis with contrast dye; hold before and
48 hours after procedures.
6. Which drug is used to reverse opioid overdose?
A) Flumazenil
B) Naloxone
C) Atropine
D) Protamine sulfate
,Rationale: Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used to reverse respiratory depression and
overdose.
7. A patient on digoxin has a heart rate of 52 bpm. Which action should the nurse
take?
A) Administer the digoxin
B) Hold the digoxin and notify the provider
C) Increase the digoxin dose
D) Document and continue
Rationale: Digoxin should be held for a heart rate below 60 bpm in adults; bradycardia
may indicate toxicity.
8. Which antibiotic class is associated with tendon rupture?
A) Penicillins
B) Fluoroquinolones
C) Macrolides
D) Tetracyclines
Rationale: Fluoroquinolones like ciprofloxacin and levofloxacin increase the risk of
tendinitis and tendon rupture.
9. A patient is prescribed levothyroxine. Which instruction is correct?
A) Take with breakfast
B) Take on an empty stomach 30–60 minutes before breakfast
C) Take at bedtime
D) Take with calcium supplements
Rationale: Levothyroxine absorption is best on an empty stomach; separate from calcium
and iron by 4 hours.
, 10. Which medication is a potassium-sparing diuretic?
A) Furosemide
B) Hydrochlorothiazide
C) Spironolactone
D) Bumetanide
Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that antagonizes aldosterone;
monitor for hyperkalemia.
11. A patient is prescribed atorvastatin. Which laboratory value should be
monitored?
A) Serum potassium
B) Liver function tests
C) Serum sodium
D) Serum calcium
Rationale: Statins can cause hepatotoxicity; monitor liver function tests periodically.
12. Which medication is used for acute bronchospasm in asthma?
A) Fluticasone
B) Albuterol
C) Montelukast
D) Prednisone
Rationale: Albuterol is a short-acting beta-2 agonist used for acute relief of bronchospasm.
13. A patient is prescribed amoxicillin. Which side effect is most common?
A) Tendon rupture
B) Diarrhea
C) Nephrotoxicity
D) Ototoxicity
