karch nursing pharmacology 9th test bank,
pharmacology nursing questions answers, drug
classification exam prep, nursing pharmacology study
guide
SECTION I: FOUNDATIONS OF PHARMACOLOGY (Questions 1–25)
Question 1
A nurse working in radiology administers iodine to a patient who is having a
computed tomography (CT) scan. The nurse working on the oncology unit
administers chemotherapy to patients who have cancer. At the Public Health
Department, a nurse administers a measles-mumps-rubella (MMR) vaccine to a
14-month-old child as a routine immunization. Which branch of pharmacology
best describes the actions of all three nurses?
A. Pharmacoeconomics
B. Pharmacotherapeutics
C. Pharmacodynamics
D. Pharmacokinetics
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Pharmacotherapeutics is the branch of pharmacology that
deals with the uses of drugs to treat, prevent, and diagnose disease. The radiology
nurse uses iodine diagnostically, the oncology nurse uses chemotherapy
therapeutically, and the public health nurse uses the vaccine preventively.
Pharmacoeconomics refers to the economic aspects of drug therapy;
pharmacodynamics is the study of how a drug affects the body; and
pharmacokinetics is the study of how the body affects a drug.
Question 2
A patient asks a nurse why a prescription for amoxicillin was filled with a generic
formulation rather than the brand-name drug the prescriber wrote. Which
concept is most important for the nurse to consider when explaining generic
substitution?
,A. Generic drugs are always less effective than brand-name drugs.
B. Generic drugs must be bioequivalent to the brand-name drug.
C. Generic drugs bypass the FDA approval process.
D. Generic drugs are only available for Schedule II medications.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Generic drugs must demonstrate bioequivalence to the brand-
name drug, meaning they must reach the same concentration in the bloodstream
at the same rate. They are FDA-approved and contain the same active
ingredients. They are not less effective, do not bypass approval, and are not
limited to Schedule II drugs.
Question 3
When involved in Phase III drug evaluation studies, what action should the nurse
perform?
A. Monitor and report adverse effects in patients receiving the drug.
B. Work with animals to determine the drug's effects.
C. Administer the drug to healthy volunteers to determine safety.
D. Collect data on the drug's effectiveness and safety in a large population.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Phase III studies involve large populations of patients with the
target condition to determine the drug's effectiveness, safety, and optimal
dosage. Phase I uses healthy volunteers; Phase II uses patients with the condition
in smaller numbers; animal testing occurs in preclinical phases. Nurses in Phase III
monitor patients closely and report adverse effects as part of the study.
Question 4
A nurse is reviewing a patient's medication list and notes that the patient is taking
a Schedule II controlled substance. Which classification best describes this drug?
A. Low abuse potential
B. Moderate abuse potential
,C. High abuse potential with accepted medical use
D. No accepted medical use in the United States
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Schedule II drugs have a high abuse potential but have
accepted medical uses in the United States (e.g., morphine, oxycodone,
methylphenidate). Schedule I drugs have no accepted medical use and high abuse
potential (e.g., heroin, LSD). Schedule III–V drugs have progressively lower abuse
potentials.
Question 5
A nurse is preparing to administer a medication that is highly protein-bound. The
patient has hypoalbuminemia. The nurse should monitor for which clinical
manifestation?
A. Reduced therapeutic effect
B. Delayed onset of action
C. Increased risk of drug toxicity
D. Rapid renal excretion of the bound drug
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Albumin is the primary protein for drug binding; low levels
result in more free (active) drug in the bloodstream, increasing toxicity risk.
Hypoalbuminemia is common in malnourished or chronically ill patients. Nurses
must recognize that serum drug levels may appear normal while the free fraction
is dangerously high.
Question 6
A patient is prescribed a medication with a half-life of 8 hours. If the patient takes
a 400 mg dose at 08:00, approximately how much of the drug will remain in the
system at 00:00 (midnight)?
A. 200 mg
B. 50 mg
, C. 100 mg
D. 25 mg
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The time from 08:00 to 00:00 is 16 hours, which equals two
half-lives (8 hours × 2). After the first half-life, 200 mg remains; after the second,
100 mg remains. Understanding half-life is critical for determining dosing intervals
and predicting drug clearance.
Question 7
A nurse is teaching a patient about the difference between prescription drugs,
over-the-counter (OTC) drugs, and orphan drugs. Which statement by the patient
indicates understanding?
A. "Orphan drugs are used to treat rare diseases."
B. "OTC drugs are always safer than prescription drugs."
C. "Prescription drugs have no potential for abuse."
D. "Orphan drugs are available without a prescription."
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Orphan drugs are developed specifically to treat rare diseases.
OTC drugs are not always safer; prescription drugs can have abuse potential; and
orphan drugs still require a prescription.
Question 8
A nurse is caring for a patient who experienced an unexpected response to a new
medication attributed to the patient's genetic makeup. What area of study best
explains this patient's medication response?
A. Pharmacotherapeutics
B. Pharmacogenomics
C. Pharmacodynamics
D. Pharmacoeconomics
pharmacology nursing questions answers, drug
classification exam prep, nursing pharmacology study
guide
SECTION I: FOUNDATIONS OF PHARMACOLOGY (Questions 1–25)
Question 1
A nurse working in radiology administers iodine to a patient who is having a
computed tomography (CT) scan. The nurse working on the oncology unit
administers chemotherapy to patients who have cancer. At the Public Health
Department, a nurse administers a measles-mumps-rubella (MMR) vaccine to a
14-month-old child as a routine immunization. Which branch of pharmacology
best describes the actions of all three nurses?
A. Pharmacoeconomics
B. Pharmacotherapeutics
C. Pharmacodynamics
D. Pharmacokinetics
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Pharmacotherapeutics is the branch of pharmacology that
deals with the uses of drugs to treat, prevent, and diagnose disease. The radiology
nurse uses iodine diagnostically, the oncology nurse uses chemotherapy
therapeutically, and the public health nurse uses the vaccine preventively.
Pharmacoeconomics refers to the economic aspects of drug therapy;
pharmacodynamics is the study of how a drug affects the body; and
pharmacokinetics is the study of how the body affects a drug.
Question 2
A patient asks a nurse why a prescription for amoxicillin was filled with a generic
formulation rather than the brand-name drug the prescriber wrote. Which
concept is most important for the nurse to consider when explaining generic
substitution?
,A. Generic drugs are always less effective than brand-name drugs.
B. Generic drugs must be bioequivalent to the brand-name drug.
C. Generic drugs bypass the FDA approval process.
D. Generic drugs are only available for Schedule II medications.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Generic drugs must demonstrate bioequivalence to the brand-
name drug, meaning they must reach the same concentration in the bloodstream
at the same rate. They are FDA-approved and contain the same active
ingredients. They are not less effective, do not bypass approval, and are not
limited to Schedule II drugs.
Question 3
When involved in Phase III drug evaluation studies, what action should the nurse
perform?
A. Monitor and report adverse effects in patients receiving the drug.
B. Work with animals to determine the drug's effects.
C. Administer the drug to healthy volunteers to determine safety.
D. Collect data on the drug's effectiveness and safety in a large population.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Phase III studies involve large populations of patients with the
target condition to determine the drug's effectiveness, safety, and optimal
dosage. Phase I uses healthy volunteers; Phase II uses patients with the condition
in smaller numbers; animal testing occurs in preclinical phases. Nurses in Phase III
monitor patients closely and report adverse effects as part of the study.
Question 4
A nurse is reviewing a patient's medication list and notes that the patient is taking
a Schedule II controlled substance. Which classification best describes this drug?
A. Low abuse potential
B. Moderate abuse potential
,C. High abuse potential with accepted medical use
D. No accepted medical use in the United States
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Schedule II drugs have a high abuse potential but have
accepted medical uses in the United States (e.g., morphine, oxycodone,
methylphenidate). Schedule I drugs have no accepted medical use and high abuse
potential (e.g., heroin, LSD). Schedule III–V drugs have progressively lower abuse
potentials.
Question 5
A nurse is preparing to administer a medication that is highly protein-bound. The
patient has hypoalbuminemia. The nurse should monitor for which clinical
manifestation?
A. Reduced therapeutic effect
B. Delayed onset of action
C. Increased risk of drug toxicity
D. Rapid renal excretion of the bound drug
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Albumin is the primary protein for drug binding; low levels
result in more free (active) drug in the bloodstream, increasing toxicity risk.
Hypoalbuminemia is common in malnourished or chronically ill patients. Nurses
must recognize that serum drug levels may appear normal while the free fraction
is dangerously high.
Question 6
A patient is prescribed a medication with a half-life of 8 hours. If the patient takes
a 400 mg dose at 08:00, approximately how much of the drug will remain in the
system at 00:00 (midnight)?
A. 200 mg
B. 50 mg
, C. 100 mg
D. 25 mg
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The time from 08:00 to 00:00 is 16 hours, which equals two
half-lives (8 hours × 2). After the first half-life, 200 mg remains; after the second,
100 mg remains. Understanding half-life is critical for determining dosing intervals
and predicting drug clearance.
Question 7
A nurse is teaching a patient about the difference between prescription drugs,
over-the-counter (OTC) drugs, and orphan drugs. Which statement by the patient
indicates understanding?
A. "Orphan drugs are used to treat rare diseases."
B. "OTC drugs are always safer than prescription drugs."
C. "Prescription drugs have no potential for abuse."
D. "Orphan drugs are available without a prescription."
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Orphan drugs are developed specifically to treat rare diseases.
OTC drugs are not always safer; prescription drugs can have abuse potential; and
orphan drugs still require a prescription.
Question 8
A nurse is caring for a patient who experienced an unexpected response to a new
medication attributed to the patient's genetic makeup. What area of study best
explains this patient's medication response?
A. Pharmacotherapeutics
B. Pharmacogenomics
C. Pharmacodynamics
D. Pharmacoeconomics
