Comprehensive Test Bank for Lehne’s Pharmacology for
Nursing Care 12th Edition – Burchum & Rosenthal | Nursing
Exam Prep
UNIT I: INTRODUCTION TO PHARMACOLOGY (Questions 1–8)
1. A nurse is teaching a patient about how a prescribed medication works to treat
hypertension. Which area of pharmacology provides the foundation for this
teaching?
A. Pharmacokinetics
B. Pharmacodynamics
C. Pharmacotherapeutics
D. Pharmacognosy
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Pharmacotherapeutics is the study of the use of drugs to
diagnose, treat, and prevent disease—essentially, the clinical purpose of drug
therapy. Pharmacokinetics (A) describes what the body does to a drug
(absorption, distribution, metabolism, excretion). Pharmacodynamics (B)
describes what the drug does to the body (mechanism of action, receptor
binding). Pharmacognosy (D) is the study of natural drug sources.
2. Which statement best defines pharmacology?
A. The study of how nurses administer medications safely
B. The study of drugs and their interactions with living organisms
C. The study of the cost-effectiveness of medication therapy
D. The study of herbal and alternative therapies only
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Pharmacology is broadly defined as the study of drugs and their
interactions with living organisms, encompassing mechanisms of action,
therapeutic effects, and adverse effects. Option A describes nursing practice, not
,pharmacology as a science. Option C describes pharmacoeconomics. Option D is
too narrow; herbal therapies are only one subset of pharmacology.
3. A patient tells the nurse, "My doctor said this analgesic is very effective." Which
statement by the patient demonstrates correct understanding of drug
effectiveness?
A. "It has no side effects and doesn't interact with other drugs."
B. "I only have to take it every 12 hours."
C. "It might make me sleepy, but it lessens my pain for several hours."
D. "It takes a large amount to cause an overdose."
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A drug is effective if it produces the intended therapeutic
response, even if it also produces side effects. Option A is incorrect because all
drugs have side effects and many interact with other substances. Option B
describes dosing convenience, not effectiveness. Option D describes toxicity
threshold, not effectiveness.
4. The nurse is reviewing a medication order and recognizes that the drug is listed
by its chemical name. Which statement about drug names is correct?
A. The chemical name is the name listed in the United States Pharmacopeia.
B. The chemical name describes the drug's atomic and molecular structure.
C. The chemical name is the same as the generic name.
D. The chemical name is the most practical name for clinical use.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The chemical name describes the drug's chemical composition
and molecular structure. The generic (nonproprietary) name is the name listed in
official publications such as the USP (A). The generic name is not the same as the
chemical name (C). The generic name, not the chemical name, is the most
practical for clinical use (D).
,5. Which phase of new drug development involves testing the drug on healthy
volunteers to determine safety and pharmacokinetics?
A. Preclinical testing
B. Phase I clinical testing
C. Phase II clinical testing
D. Phase IV postmarketing surveillance
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Phase I clinical testing involves administering the drug to
healthy volunteers to determine safety, tolerance, and pharmacokinetic
parameters. Preclinical testing (A) occurs in animals and laboratory studies. Phase
II (C) involves patients with the target condition to assess therapeutic efficacy.
Phase IV (D) occurs after FDA approval to monitor long-term effects.
6. A nurse is preparing to administer a medication that is classified as a Schedule II
controlled substance. Which statement about Schedule II drugs is accurate?
A. They have no accepted medical use in the United States.
B. They have a low potential for abuse.
C. They require a written prescription with no refills.
D. They may be refilled up to five times within six months.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Schedule II drugs have a high potential for abuse, have
accepted medical uses, and require a written prescription with no refills
permitted. Schedule I drugs (A) have no accepted medical use. Schedule III–V
drugs have lower abuse potential (B). Schedule III–IV drugs may be refilled up to
five times within six months (D).
7. Which of the following are responsibilities of the nurse in medication
administration? (Select all that apply.)
, A. Assessing the patient before administering medication
B. Prescribing medications for common conditions
C. Educating the patient about the medication regimen
D. Monitoring for therapeutic and adverse effects
E. Adjusting the medication dose without an order
Correct Answers: A, C, D
Rationale: Nurses assess patients before administration (A), educate
patients about medications (C), and monitor for therapeutic and adverse effects
(D). Prescribing medications (B) is outside the scope of nursing practice unless the
nurse has prescriptive authority as an advanced practice provider. Adjusting doses
without an order (E) is never acceptable nursing practice.
8. A nurse is reviewing the concept of "prototype drugs." Which statement best
describes the purpose of using prototype drugs in pharmacology education?
A. Prototype drugs are the most expensive drugs in their class.
B. Prototype drugs represent the characteristics of an entire drug class.
C. Prototype drugs are the newest drugs on the market.
D. Prototype drugs are the only drugs nurses need to know.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A prototype drug is a representative agent that characterizes all
members of a given drug group. By understanding the prototype, the nurse can
apply that knowledge to related drugs in the same class. Prototypes are not
necessarily the most expensive (A), the newest (C), or the only drugs the nurse
needs to know (D).
UNIT II: BASIC PRINCIPLES OF PHARMACOLOGY (Questions 9–24)
9. A drug is administered orally and undergoes extensive first-pass metabolism.
What is the primary consequence of this process?
Nursing Care 12th Edition – Burchum & Rosenthal | Nursing
Exam Prep
UNIT I: INTRODUCTION TO PHARMACOLOGY (Questions 1–8)
1. A nurse is teaching a patient about how a prescribed medication works to treat
hypertension. Which area of pharmacology provides the foundation for this
teaching?
A. Pharmacokinetics
B. Pharmacodynamics
C. Pharmacotherapeutics
D. Pharmacognosy
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Pharmacotherapeutics is the study of the use of drugs to
diagnose, treat, and prevent disease—essentially, the clinical purpose of drug
therapy. Pharmacokinetics (A) describes what the body does to a drug
(absorption, distribution, metabolism, excretion). Pharmacodynamics (B)
describes what the drug does to the body (mechanism of action, receptor
binding). Pharmacognosy (D) is the study of natural drug sources.
2. Which statement best defines pharmacology?
A. The study of how nurses administer medications safely
B. The study of drugs and their interactions with living organisms
C. The study of the cost-effectiveness of medication therapy
D. The study of herbal and alternative therapies only
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Pharmacology is broadly defined as the study of drugs and their
interactions with living organisms, encompassing mechanisms of action,
therapeutic effects, and adverse effects. Option A describes nursing practice, not
,pharmacology as a science. Option C describes pharmacoeconomics. Option D is
too narrow; herbal therapies are only one subset of pharmacology.
3. A patient tells the nurse, "My doctor said this analgesic is very effective." Which
statement by the patient demonstrates correct understanding of drug
effectiveness?
A. "It has no side effects and doesn't interact with other drugs."
B. "I only have to take it every 12 hours."
C. "It might make me sleepy, but it lessens my pain for several hours."
D. "It takes a large amount to cause an overdose."
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A drug is effective if it produces the intended therapeutic
response, even if it also produces side effects. Option A is incorrect because all
drugs have side effects and many interact with other substances. Option B
describes dosing convenience, not effectiveness. Option D describes toxicity
threshold, not effectiveness.
4. The nurse is reviewing a medication order and recognizes that the drug is listed
by its chemical name. Which statement about drug names is correct?
A. The chemical name is the name listed in the United States Pharmacopeia.
B. The chemical name describes the drug's atomic and molecular structure.
C. The chemical name is the same as the generic name.
D. The chemical name is the most practical name for clinical use.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The chemical name describes the drug's chemical composition
and molecular structure. The generic (nonproprietary) name is the name listed in
official publications such as the USP (A). The generic name is not the same as the
chemical name (C). The generic name, not the chemical name, is the most
practical for clinical use (D).
,5. Which phase of new drug development involves testing the drug on healthy
volunteers to determine safety and pharmacokinetics?
A. Preclinical testing
B. Phase I clinical testing
C. Phase II clinical testing
D. Phase IV postmarketing surveillance
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Phase I clinical testing involves administering the drug to
healthy volunteers to determine safety, tolerance, and pharmacokinetic
parameters. Preclinical testing (A) occurs in animals and laboratory studies. Phase
II (C) involves patients with the target condition to assess therapeutic efficacy.
Phase IV (D) occurs after FDA approval to monitor long-term effects.
6. A nurse is preparing to administer a medication that is classified as a Schedule II
controlled substance. Which statement about Schedule II drugs is accurate?
A. They have no accepted medical use in the United States.
B. They have a low potential for abuse.
C. They require a written prescription with no refills.
D. They may be refilled up to five times within six months.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Schedule II drugs have a high potential for abuse, have
accepted medical uses, and require a written prescription with no refills
permitted. Schedule I drugs (A) have no accepted medical use. Schedule III–V
drugs have lower abuse potential (B). Schedule III–IV drugs may be refilled up to
five times within six months (D).
7. Which of the following are responsibilities of the nurse in medication
administration? (Select all that apply.)
, A. Assessing the patient before administering medication
B. Prescribing medications for common conditions
C. Educating the patient about the medication regimen
D. Monitoring for therapeutic and adverse effects
E. Adjusting the medication dose without an order
Correct Answers: A, C, D
Rationale: Nurses assess patients before administration (A), educate
patients about medications (C), and monitor for therapeutic and adverse effects
(D). Prescribing medications (B) is outside the scope of nursing practice unless the
nurse has prescriptive authority as an advanced practice provider. Adjusting doses
without an order (E) is never acceptable nursing practice.
8. A nurse is reviewing the concept of "prototype drugs." Which statement best
describes the purpose of using prototype drugs in pharmacology education?
A. Prototype drugs are the most expensive drugs in their class.
B. Prototype drugs represent the characteristics of an entire drug class.
C. Prototype drugs are the newest drugs on the market.
D. Prototype drugs are the only drugs nurses need to know.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A prototype drug is a representative agent that characterizes all
members of a given drug group. By understanding the prototype, the nurse can
apply that knowledge to related drugs in the same class. Prototypes are not
necessarily the most expensive (A), the newest (C), or the only drugs the nurse
needs to know (D).
UNIT II: BASIC PRINCIPLES OF PHARMACOLOGY (Questions 9–24)
9. A drug is administered orally and undergoes extensive first-pass metabolism.
What is the primary consequence of this process?
