FISDAP EMT Medical Exam 2026/2027 Study
Guide | FISDAP EMT Medical Practice Questions
& Answers, Detailed Rationales, Patient
Assessment, Medical Emergencies, Clinical
Scenarios & NREMT Exam Prep
Question 1: In contrast to the assessment of a trauma patient,
assessment of a medical patient is focused on:
A. almost exclusively physical signs of injury
B. the nature of illness, the chief complaint, and symptoms
C. a mandatory head-to-toe detailed physical exam
D. rapid identification of bleeding sources
CORRECT ANSWER: B. the nature of illness, the chief complaint,
and symptoms
Rationale: Medical patient assessment focuses on the nature of illness, the
patient's chief complaint, and his or her symptoms, whereas trauma
assessment prioritizes mechanism of injury and physical findings.
Question 2: Which of the following statements regarding medical
emergencies is correct?
A. Medical emergencies always take priority over traumatic injuries
B. Medical emergencies can appear to be trauma in nature
C. Medical emergencies and traumatic injuries always have distinctive
presentations
D. Medical emergencies rarely precipitate traumatic injuries
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Medical emergencies can appear to be
trauma in nature
Rationale: Medical emergencies can present with signs that mimic trauma,
such as altered mental status from hypoglycemia appearing similar to head
injury.
Question 3: A 50-year-old man complains of weakness and is
critically ill. The closest hospital is 25 miles away. You should:
A. perform a detailed secondary assessment before transport
B. manage all threats to airway, breathing, and circulation and consider
requesting ALS
,C. administer oxygen and obtain full medical history first
D. load him into the ambulance and perform all treatment en route
CORRECT ANSWER: B. manage all threats to airway, breathing, and
circulation and consider requesting ALS
Rationale: For a critically ill patient requiring aggressive treatment with a
distant hospital, the priority is managing immediate life threats and
requesting ALS backup for advanced interventions.
Question 4: A 48-year-old man with crushing chest pain received
aspirin and high-flow oxygen. His mental status deteriorates and he
becomes bradycardic. You should:
A. continue with your secondary assessment
B. prepare the patient for immediate transport
C. insert a nasal airway and assist his breathing
D. request an ALS unit to respond to the scene
CORRECT ANSWER: B. prepare the patient for immediate transport
Rationale: Deteriorating mental status and bradycardia indicate the patient
is decompensating; immediate transport is the priority rather than
continued on-scene assessment.
Question 5: A 33-year-old female with lower abdominal pain has an
absent radial pulse. You should:
A. assess the rate, regularity, and quality of her carotid pulse
B. advise your partner that the patient's blood pressure is low
C. immediately take her blood pressure to see if she is hypotensive
D. conclude that she is perfusing adequately since she is conscious
CORRECT ANSWER: A. assess the rate, regularity, and quality of
her carotid pulse
Rationale: An absent radial pulse suggests hypotension; assessing the
carotid pulse helps determine if central perfusion is present before
concluding about blood pressure.
Question 6: Ten days after treating a patient with tuberculosis,
your tuberculin skin test is positive. This MOST likely indicates:
A. you are actively infected and should be treated immediately
B. the disease is dormant and will probably never cause symptoms
,C. you contracted the disease by casual contact
D. you were exposed to another infected person prior to treating the patient
CORRECT ANSWER: D. you were exposed to another infected
person prior to treating the patient
Rationale: A positive TB skin test 10 days after exposure most likely reflects
prior exposure, as TB conversion typically takes 2-8 weeks after exposure.
Question 7: Which statement regarding HIV is correct?
A. HIV is far more contagious than hepatitis B
B. The risk of HIV infection is high even with intact skin contact
C. The risk of HIV infection is greatest with mucous membrane or
bloodstream exposure
D. Most HIV-infected patients experience chronic symptoms of varying
severity
CORRECT ANSWER: C. The risk of HIV infection is greatest with
mucous membrane or bloodstream exposure
Rationale: HIV transmission risk is highest when infected blood contacts
mucous membranes or enters the bloodstream directly.
Question 8: A 58-year-old man with chest discomfort takes
medication for erectile dysfunction. Regarding nitroglycerin
administration, you should:
A. administer the nitroglycerin as prescribed
B. withhold nitroglycerin and contact medical control
C. administer half the dose to be safe
D. give the nitroglycerin only if blood pressure is above 120 systolic
CORRECT ANSWER: B. withhold nitroglycerin and contact medical
control
Rationale: Nitroglycerin is contraindicated in patients taking erectile
dysfunction medications due to the risk of severe hypotension.
Question 9: A patient is found unresponsive in a public location.
The EMT's FIRST action upon arrival is to:
A. begin chest compressions immediately
B. check for a carotid pulse
, C. ensure scene safety and don appropriate PPE
D. apply an AED to the patient's chest
CORRECT ANSWER: C. ensure scene safety and don appropriate
PPE
Rationale: Scene safety and personal protective equipment are always the
first priorities before approaching any patient in any EMS response.
Question 10: A 45-year-old male with crushing substernal chest
pain, diaphoresis, and nausea has BP 150/90, HR 110, RR 22, SpO2
94%. After primary assessment, you should FIRST:
A. administer nitroglycerin sublingually
B. obtain a 12-lead ECG
C. administer aspirin 324 mg chewable
D. start an IV line
CORRECT ANSWER: C. administer aspirin 324 mg chewable
Rationale: Early aspirin administration is a critical EMT-level intervention
for suspected ACS that reduces mortality by inhibiting platelet aggregation.
Question 11: A COPD patient becomes increasingly dyspneic with
SpO2 dropping to 86% on 2L nasal cannula. The MOST appropriate
adjustment is:
A. increase to 15L/min via nonrebreather mask
B. increase nasal cannula to 4-6 L/min and titrate to SpO2 88-92%
C. begin bag-valve-mask ventilation
D. decrease oxygen to 1L/min to prevent oxygen toxicity
CORRECT ANSWER: B. increase nasal cannula to 4-6 L/min and
titrate to SpO2 88-92%
Rationale: COPD patients should have oxygen titrated to SpO2 88-92% to
avoid worsening hypercapnia while treating hypoxia.
Question 12: A 22-year-old female found unconscious with pinpoint
pupils, RR of 8, and cyanosis MOST likely has:
A. alcohol intoxication
B. opioid overdose
C. diabetic ketoacidosis
D. carbon monoxide poisoning
Guide | FISDAP EMT Medical Practice Questions
& Answers, Detailed Rationales, Patient
Assessment, Medical Emergencies, Clinical
Scenarios & NREMT Exam Prep
Question 1: In contrast to the assessment of a trauma patient,
assessment of a medical patient is focused on:
A. almost exclusively physical signs of injury
B. the nature of illness, the chief complaint, and symptoms
C. a mandatory head-to-toe detailed physical exam
D. rapid identification of bleeding sources
CORRECT ANSWER: B. the nature of illness, the chief complaint,
and symptoms
Rationale: Medical patient assessment focuses on the nature of illness, the
patient's chief complaint, and his or her symptoms, whereas trauma
assessment prioritizes mechanism of injury and physical findings.
Question 2: Which of the following statements regarding medical
emergencies is correct?
A. Medical emergencies always take priority over traumatic injuries
B. Medical emergencies can appear to be trauma in nature
C. Medical emergencies and traumatic injuries always have distinctive
presentations
D. Medical emergencies rarely precipitate traumatic injuries
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Medical emergencies can appear to be
trauma in nature
Rationale: Medical emergencies can present with signs that mimic trauma,
such as altered mental status from hypoglycemia appearing similar to head
injury.
Question 3: A 50-year-old man complains of weakness and is
critically ill. The closest hospital is 25 miles away. You should:
A. perform a detailed secondary assessment before transport
B. manage all threats to airway, breathing, and circulation and consider
requesting ALS
,C. administer oxygen and obtain full medical history first
D. load him into the ambulance and perform all treatment en route
CORRECT ANSWER: B. manage all threats to airway, breathing, and
circulation and consider requesting ALS
Rationale: For a critically ill patient requiring aggressive treatment with a
distant hospital, the priority is managing immediate life threats and
requesting ALS backup for advanced interventions.
Question 4: A 48-year-old man with crushing chest pain received
aspirin and high-flow oxygen. His mental status deteriorates and he
becomes bradycardic. You should:
A. continue with your secondary assessment
B. prepare the patient for immediate transport
C. insert a nasal airway and assist his breathing
D. request an ALS unit to respond to the scene
CORRECT ANSWER: B. prepare the patient for immediate transport
Rationale: Deteriorating mental status and bradycardia indicate the patient
is decompensating; immediate transport is the priority rather than
continued on-scene assessment.
Question 5: A 33-year-old female with lower abdominal pain has an
absent radial pulse. You should:
A. assess the rate, regularity, and quality of her carotid pulse
B. advise your partner that the patient's blood pressure is low
C. immediately take her blood pressure to see if she is hypotensive
D. conclude that she is perfusing adequately since she is conscious
CORRECT ANSWER: A. assess the rate, regularity, and quality of
her carotid pulse
Rationale: An absent radial pulse suggests hypotension; assessing the
carotid pulse helps determine if central perfusion is present before
concluding about blood pressure.
Question 6: Ten days after treating a patient with tuberculosis,
your tuberculin skin test is positive. This MOST likely indicates:
A. you are actively infected and should be treated immediately
B. the disease is dormant and will probably never cause symptoms
,C. you contracted the disease by casual contact
D. you were exposed to another infected person prior to treating the patient
CORRECT ANSWER: D. you were exposed to another infected
person prior to treating the patient
Rationale: A positive TB skin test 10 days after exposure most likely reflects
prior exposure, as TB conversion typically takes 2-8 weeks after exposure.
Question 7: Which statement regarding HIV is correct?
A. HIV is far more contagious than hepatitis B
B. The risk of HIV infection is high even with intact skin contact
C. The risk of HIV infection is greatest with mucous membrane or
bloodstream exposure
D. Most HIV-infected patients experience chronic symptoms of varying
severity
CORRECT ANSWER: C. The risk of HIV infection is greatest with
mucous membrane or bloodstream exposure
Rationale: HIV transmission risk is highest when infected blood contacts
mucous membranes or enters the bloodstream directly.
Question 8: A 58-year-old man with chest discomfort takes
medication for erectile dysfunction. Regarding nitroglycerin
administration, you should:
A. administer the nitroglycerin as prescribed
B. withhold nitroglycerin and contact medical control
C. administer half the dose to be safe
D. give the nitroglycerin only if blood pressure is above 120 systolic
CORRECT ANSWER: B. withhold nitroglycerin and contact medical
control
Rationale: Nitroglycerin is contraindicated in patients taking erectile
dysfunction medications due to the risk of severe hypotension.
Question 9: A patient is found unresponsive in a public location.
The EMT's FIRST action upon arrival is to:
A. begin chest compressions immediately
B. check for a carotid pulse
, C. ensure scene safety and don appropriate PPE
D. apply an AED to the patient's chest
CORRECT ANSWER: C. ensure scene safety and don appropriate
PPE
Rationale: Scene safety and personal protective equipment are always the
first priorities before approaching any patient in any EMS response.
Question 10: A 45-year-old male with crushing substernal chest
pain, diaphoresis, and nausea has BP 150/90, HR 110, RR 22, SpO2
94%. After primary assessment, you should FIRST:
A. administer nitroglycerin sublingually
B. obtain a 12-lead ECG
C. administer aspirin 324 mg chewable
D. start an IV line
CORRECT ANSWER: C. administer aspirin 324 mg chewable
Rationale: Early aspirin administration is a critical EMT-level intervention
for suspected ACS that reduces mortality by inhibiting platelet aggregation.
Question 11: A COPD patient becomes increasingly dyspneic with
SpO2 dropping to 86% on 2L nasal cannula. The MOST appropriate
adjustment is:
A. increase to 15L/min via nonrebreather mask
B. increase nasal cannula to 4-6 L/min and titrate to SpO2 88-92%
C. begin bag-valve-mask ventilation
D. decrease oxygen to 1L/min to prevent oxygen toxicity
CORRECT ANSWER: B. increase nasal cannula to 4-6 L/min and
titrate to SpO2 88-92%
Rationale: COPD patients should have oxygen titrated to SpO2 88-92% to
avoid worsening hypercapnia while treating hypoxia.
Question 12: A 22-year-old female found unconscious with pinpoint
pupils, RR of 8, and cyanosis MOST likely has:
A. alcohol intoxication
B. opioid overdose
C. diabetic ketoacidosis
D. carbon monoxide poisoning
