BSN 225 — HESI RN Specialty Fundamentals of Nursing Exam V2 Edition
BSN 225 HESI RN Specialty Fundamentals of Nursing Exam V2
Latest Update | Questions & Answers | 100% Correct | Grade A
Nightingale College — BSN 225 Course Syllabus
Total Questions: 150 | Cognitive Levels: 20% Recall, 50% Application, 30% Analysis | Format: 75% Scenario-based, 25%
Direct Knowledge
Aligned with: HESI RN Specialty Exam Blueprint · NCLEX-RN Test Plan · Fundamentals of Nursing Competencies
(2026/2027 Edition)
Special Features: 20 priority-setting questions · 15 pharmacology questions · 10 delegation questions · 5 integrated case studies
Section 1: Safe & Effective Care Environment — Management of Care
Q1: A 17-year-old unmarried primigravida at 38 weeks gestation presents in active labor and requires an
emergency cesarean section for fetal distress. She is alert, oriented, and verbally consents to the procedure.
Which action by the nurse is legally and ethically most appropriate?
A. Proceed with surgery; verbal consent is sufficient in an emergency involving a minor who is pregnant, since
emancipation is implied by pregnancy.
B. Delay surgery until a parent or legal guardian is reached by phone to provide documented telephone consent.
C. Verify state law regarding emancipated minors; if state law recognizes the pregnant minor as
emancipated for pregnancy-related care, witness her signed informed consent and notify the provider.
*[CORRECT]*
D. Refuse to witness the consent because minors cannot legally consent regardless of circumstance.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Informed consent requires legal capacity, and most states recognize pregnant minors as emancipated for the purpose of
consenting to obstetric and pregnancy-related care under the mature minor doctrine. The nurse's role is to witness the consent
process and ensure the provider has disclosed risks, benefits, and alternatives. Proceeding without verifying state law (A) risks a
battery claim; delaying emergency surgery (B) could harm mother and fetus; refusal to witness (D) violates the patient's autonomy.
The HESI RN Specialty blueprint tests legal capacity within the Management of Care domain, and the NCLEX-RN test plan
emphasizes patient advocacy and informed consent.
Q2: An RN on a 32-bed medical-surgical unit is caring for six clients. Which of the following tasks is most
appropriate to delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)?
A. Reinforce discharge teaching for a client newly started on warfarin therapy.
B. Measure and document intake and output for a client with heart failure receiving IV furosemide.
*[CORRECT]*
C. Assess a Stage II sacral pressure injury for a client who is bed-bound.
D. Evaluate the response of a client who received PRN morphine 30 minutes ago.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Measurement and documentation of intake and output is a routine, non-invasive task within UAP scope of practice that
follows standardized procedures. Discharge teaching (A) requires nursing judgment and must be done by the RN; wound
assessment (C) is assessment and requires RN/LPN scope; evaluation of medication response (D) is nursing judgment reserved for
the RN. The Five Rights of Delegation (right task, right circumstance, right person, right direction, right supervision) and the ANA
Joint Statement on Delegation guide this decision. The NCLEX-RN test plan (Safe and Effective Care Environment) directly tests
Nightingale College — BSN 225 — Grade A Answer Key Page 1
,BSN 225 — HESI RN Specialty Fundamentals of Nursing Exam V2 Edition
delegation to UAP.
Q3: The RN receives a change-of-shift report on four clients. Which client should the nurse assess FIRST?
A. A 68-year-old client with COPD whose oxygen saturation is 88% on 2 L/min nasal cannula and who
reports increased sputum production. *[CORRECT]*
B. A 54-year-old client who is 2 hours post-colonoscopy with polyp removal reporting mild abdominal cramping.
C. A 72-year-old client with heart failure whose weight has increased by 1.1 kg overnight and who has 2+ pitting
edema.
D. A 45-year-old client with type 1 diabetes mellitus whose morning blood glucose is 220 mg/dL and who is
awaiting breakfast.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Using the ABC priority framework and acute vs. chronic triage, the COPD client with an oxygen saturation of 88% and
worsening sputum has the greatest risk of respiratory compromise and requires immediate assessment for impending respiratory
failure. Heart failure weight gain (C) is concerning but stable; post-procedure cramping (B) is expected; elevated glucose (D) needs
intervention but is not immediately life-threatening. HESI RN Specialty prioritization questions use the ABC, Maslow, and
acute/chronic frameworks consistently.
Q4: A client's estranged spouse calls the nursing unit requesting information about the client's diagnosis,
room number, and prognosis. The client has explicitly requested that no information be shared with this
individual. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?
A. Share limited information because spouses are next of kin under HIPAA.
B. Transfer the call to the hospital legal department before disclosing any information.
C. Politely inform the caller that you cannot confirm or deny the client's presence at the facility due to the
client's request and HIPAA privacy regulations. *[CORRECT]*
D. Confirm the room number only, because location is not considered protected health information.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Under HIPAA, protected health information (PHI) includes the client's presence in the facility and room number. When
a client has explicitly restricted information sharing, the nurse cannot confirm or deny presence. Spousal status does not override
the client's explicit request. Transferring to legal (B) is unnecessary; the nurse can independently apply HIPAA. Sharing any
information (A, D) violates the privacy rule. HESI tests HIPAA and confidentiality under the Management of Care domain.
Q5: An 84-year-old client with stage IV ovarian cancer refuses a blood transfusion, stating, "I have lived a
full life and I do not want to prolong my suffering." The client is alert, oriented, and has decision-making
capacity. The daughter insists the transfusion be given. Which ethical principle should guide the nurse's
response?
A. Beneficence — the nurse must act in the client's best medical interest and administer the transfusion.
B. Nonmaleficence — the nurse must prevent harm, which in this case means overriding the refusal to prevent
death.
C. Autonomy — the nurse must respect the client's informed refusal of treatment because the client has
decision-making capacity. *[CORRECT]*
D. Justice — the nurse must allocate blood products fairly to those who will benefit most.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Autonomy respects the right of a competent adult to make decisions about their own body, including the right to refuse
treatment. The client meets all criteria for decision-making capacity: she is alert, oriented, and her decision reflects a consistent,
considered value system. Beneficence (A) and nonmaleficence (B) do not override a competent adult's autonomous refusal; justice
Nightingale College — BSN 225 — Grade A Answer Key Page 2
,BSN 225 — HESI RN Specialty Fundamentals of Nursing Exam V2 Edition
(D) is irrelevant to this individual decision. The ANA Code of Ethics and NCLEX-RN test plan emphasize patient
self-determination.
Q6: A 76-year-old client is admitted with a stroke and is now unresponsive. The family produces a valid
durable power of attorney for health care (DPOA-HC) designating the client's spouse as the health care
proxy. The provider recommends a feeding tube. The spouse declines. Which action should the nurse take?
A. Insert the feeding tube as ordered because the client's life is in danger and the spouse is emotionally
compromised.
B. Notify the hospital ethics committee and delay all nutrition pending review.
C. Honor the spouse's decision as the designated health care proxy and document the refusal, the presence
of the DPOA-HC, and provider notification. *[CORRECT]*
D. Ask the adult children to override the spouse because next of kin must reach consensus.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The Patient Self-Determination Act requires facilities to honor advance directives. A designated DPOA-HC agent has
the legal authority to make decisions consistent with the client's known wishes or best interest. The spouse's refusal is binding unless
there is evidence of conflict of interest or violation of the client's known wishes. Inserting the tube (A) constitutes battery. The ethics
committee (B) is for unresolved conflicts, not unilateral overrides. Adult children (D) cannot override a designated agent. HESI
and NCLEX emphasize advance directives and patient rights.
Q7: A nurse administers 10 units of regular insulin subcutaneously instead of the ordered 5 units. The
client is conscious and the error is recognized immediately. After notifying the provider and the charge
nurse, which action should the nurse take NEXT?
A. File an incident report and document the error in the medical record, including the time, dose, and
provider notification. *[CORRECT]*
B. File an incident report but do not document the error in the medical record to avoid legal liability.
C. Document only that the provider was notified and continue to monitor the client's glucose.
D. Wait until the end of the shift to file the incident report so the team can review the case together.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: An incident report is an internal quality improvement document used to track trends and prevent recurrence. The
medication error itself and the provider notification must also be documented in the medical record (the fact of the error and the
clinical response), while the incident report is filed separately. Failing to document in the medical record (B) constitutes
falsification; documenting only provider notification (C) omits critical clinical information; delaying the report (D) compromises
accuracy. The HESI RN Specialty blueprint tests documentation principles under the Management of Care domain.
Q8: An RN is assigned to four clients and is preparing to delegate care to a licensed practical nurse (LPN).
Which client is the MOST appropriate to assign to the LPN?
A. A client who is 4 hours post-coronary angioplasty with sheath removal and requires frequent vascular
assessments.
B. A stable client with pneumonia receiving oral antibiotics and IV fluids who requires routine monitoring
and medication administration. *[CORRECT]*
C. A newly admitted client with chest pain of unknown etiology awaiting serial troponins.
D. A client with new-onset confusion and a glucose of 50 mg/dL requiring IV dextrose administration.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The LPN scope of practice includes caring for stable clients with predictable outcomes and administering routine
medications and IV fluids. The stable pneumonia client (B) fits these criteria. The post-angioplasty client (A) requires high-level
Nightingale College — BSN 225 — Grade A Answer Key Page 3
, BSN 225 — HESI RN Specialty Fundamentals of Nursing Exam V2 Edition
assessment for vascular complications; the chest pain client (C) requires RN-level assessment and triage; the hypoglycemic client
(D) requires emergency IV intervention and ongoing RN assessment. The NCSBN Model Nursing Practice Act and the Five Rights
of Delegation frame this assignment decision.
Q9: A client is 6 hours postoperative from a total knee arthroplasty. Which task is most appropriate for the
RN to delegate to the UAP?
A. Instruct the UAP to assist the client to the bathroom for the first time postoperatively.
B. Instruct the UAP to ambulate the client in the hallway with a walker for the first time.
C. Instruct the UAP to obtain vital signs and report a blood pressure less than 100/60 or pain greater than
5/10. *[CORRECT]*
D. Instruct the UAP to assess the surgical incision for drainage and redness.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: UAP may measure vital signs and report specific parameters defined by the RN; this is a routine task with clear,
standardized directions. Initial ambulation (B) of a fresh postoperative orthopedic client requires RN assessment and presence due
to fall risk, hypotension risk, and surgical precautions. Bathroom transfers (A) for a 6-hour post-op client are RN scope. Incision
assessment (D) is RN scope. The NCSBN delegation decision tree specifies that initial, complex, or unstable situations require RN
judgment.
Q10: An RN is reviewing tasks that need to be completed. Which task should NOT be delegated to an LPN
on a medical-surgical unit?
A. Administering oral medications to a stable client with hypertension.
B. Changing a sterile dressing on a client with a stage III pressure injury.
C. Administering IV push morphine 4 mg to a client with acute postoperative pain. *[CORRECT]*
D. Monitoring intake and output and reporting findings to the RN.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: IV push administration of high-alert medications such as morphine is generally outside LPN scope in most states and
requires RN-level assessment, particularly for respiratory depression and analgesic response. Oral medication administration (A),
sterile dressing changes (B), and I&O monitoring (D) are within LPN scope when the client is stable. The NCSBN Model Nursing
Practice Act limits LPN practice to stable clients with predictable outcomes. IV push narcotics are a frequent source of delegation
errors and are commonly tested on HESI and NCLEX-RN.
Q11: The nurse is caring for a client with multiple needs. Using Maslow's hierarchy of needs, which
problem should the nurse address FIRST?
A. The client reports feeling anxious about an upcoming diagnostic procedure.
B. The client has a prescription for a low-sodium diet but states, "I do not understand what to eat."
C. The client's oxygen saturation is 90% on room air and the respiratory rate is 28/min. *[CORRECT]*
D. The client reports feeling lonely and asks if a family member can stay overnight.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Maslow's hierarchy prioritizes physiological needs (oxygenation) above safety, love/belonging, esteem, and
self-actualization needs. The client with oxygen saturation of 90% and tachypnea has an unmet physiological need requiring
immediate intervention. Anxiety (A) is a self-esteem/emotional need; teaching deficit (B) is a safety/cognitive need; loneliness (D) is
a love/belonging need. All are valid, but physiological needs take precedence. The HESI prioritization framework explicitly
references Maslow.
Nightingale College — BSN 225 — Grade A Answer Key Page 4
BSN 225 HESI RN Specialty Fundamentals of Nursing Exam V2
Latest Update | Questions & Answers | 100% Correct | Grade A
Nightingale College — BSN 225 Course Syllabus
Total Questions: 150 | Cognitive Levels: 20% Recall, 50% Application, 30% Analysis | Format: 75% Scenario-based, 25%
Direct Knowledge
Aligned with: HESI RN Specialty Exam Blueprint · NCLEX-RN Test Plan · Fundamentals of Nursing Competencies
(2026/2027 Edition)
Special Features: 20 priority-setting questions · 15 pharmacology questions · 10 delegation questions · 5 integrated case studies
Section 1: Safe & Effective Care Environment — Management of Care
Q1: A 17-year-old unmarried primigravida at 38 weeks gestation presents in active labor and requires an
emergency cesarean section for fetal distress. She is alert, oriented, and verbally consents to the procedure.
Which action by the nurse is legally and ethically most appropriate?
A. Proceed with surgery; verbal consent is sufficient in an emergency involving a minor who is pregnant, since
emancipation is implied by pregnancy.
B. Delay surgery until a parent or legal guardian is reached by phone to provide documented telephone consent.
C. Verify state law regarding emancipated minors; if state law recognizes the pregnant minor as
emancipated for pregnancy-related care, witness her signed informed consent and notify the provider.
*[CORRECT]*
D. Refuse to witness the consent because minors cannot legally consent regardless of circumstance.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Informed consent requires legal capacity, and most states recognize pregnant minors as emancipated for the purpose of
consenting to obstetric and pregnancy-related care under the mature minor doctrine. The nurse's role is to witness the consent
process and ensure the provider has disclosed risks, benefits, and alternatives. Proceeding without verifying state law (A) risks a
battery claim; delaying emergency surgery (B) could harm mother and fetus; refusal to witness (D) violates the patient's autonomy.
The HESI RN Specialty blueprint tests legal capacity within the Management of Care domain, and the NCLEX-RN test plan
emphasizes patient advocacy and informed consent.
Q2: An RN on a 32-bed medical-surgical unit is caring for six clients. Which of the following tasks is most
appropriate to delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)?
A. Reinforce discharge teaching for a client newly started on warfarin therapy.
B. Measure and document intake and output for a client with heart failure receiving IV furosemide.
*[CORRECT]*
C. Assess a Stage II sacral pressure injury for a client who is bed-bound.
D. Evaluate the response of a client who received PRN morphine 30 minutes ago.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Measurement and documentation of intake and output is a routine, non-invasive task within UAP scope of practice that
follows standardized procedures. Discharge teaching (A) requires nursing judgment and must be done by the RN; wound
assessment (C) is assessment and requires RN/LPN scope; evaluation of medication response (D) is nursing judgment reserved for
the RN. The Five Rights of Delegation (right task, right circumstance, right person, right direction, right supervision) and the ANA
Joint Statement on Delegation guide this decision. The NCLEX-RN test plan (Safe and Effective Care Environment) directly tests
Nightingale College — BSN 225 — Grade A Answer Key Page 1
,BSN 225 — HESI RN Specialty Fundamentals of Nursing Exam V2 Edition
delegation to UAP.
Q3: The RN receives a change-of-shift report on four clients. Which client should the nurse assess FIRST?
A. A 68-year-old client with COPD whose oxygen saturation is 88% on 2 L/min nasal cannula and who
reports increased sputum production. *[CORRECT]*
B. A 54-year-old client who is 2 hours post-colonoscopy with polyp removal reporting mild abdominal cramping.
C. A 72-year-old client with heart failure whose weight has increased by 1.1 kg overnight and who has 2+ pitting
edema.
D. A 45-year-old client with type 1 diabetes mellitus whose morning blood glucose is 220 mg/dL and who is
awaiting breakfast.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Using the ABC priority framework and acute vs. chronic triage, the COPD client with an oxygen saturation of 88% and
worsening sputum has the greatest risk of respiratory compromise and requires immediate assessment for impending respiratory
failure. Heart failure weight gain (C) is concerning but stable; post-procedure cramping (B) is expected; elevated glucose (D) needs
intervention but is not immediately life-threatening. HESI RN Specialty prioritization questions use the ABC, Maslow, and
acute/chronic frameworks consistently.
Q4: A client's estranged spouse calls the nursing unit requesting information about the client's diagnosis,
room number, and prognosis. The client has explicitly requested that no information be shared with this
individual. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?
A. Share limited information because spouses are next of kin under HIPAA.
B. Transfer the call to the hospital legal department before disclosing any information.
C. Politely inform the caller that you cannot confirm or deny the client's presence at the facility due to the
client's request and HIPAA privacy regulations. *[CORRECT]*
D. Confirm the room number only, because location is not considered protected health information.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Under HIPAA, protected health information (PHI) includes the client's presence in the facility and room number. When
a client has explicitly restricted information sharing, the nurse cannot confirm or deny presence. Spousal status does not override
the client's explicit request. Transferring to legal (B) is unnecessary; the nurse can independently apply HIPAA. Sharing any
information (A, D) violates the privacy rule. HESI tests HIPAA and confidentiality under the Management of Care domain.
Q5: An 84-year-old client with stage IV ovarian cancer refuses a blood transfusion, stating, "I have lived a
full life and I do not want to prolong my suffering." The client is alert, oriented, and has decision-making
capacity. The daughter insists the transfusion be given. Which ethical principle should guide the nurse's
response?
A. Beneficence — the nurse must act in the client's best medical interest and administer the transfusion.
B. Nonmaleficence — the nurse must prevent harm, which in this case means overriding the refusal to prevent
death.
C. Autonomy — the nurse must respect the client's informed refusal of treatment because the client has
decision-making capacity. *[CORRECT]*
D. Justice — the nurse must allocate blood products fairly to those who will benefit most.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Autonomy respects the right of a competent adult to make decisions about their own body, including the right to refuse
treatment. The client meets all criteria for decision-making capacity: she is alert, oriented, and her decision reflects a consistent,
considered value system. Beneficence (A) and nonmaleficence (B) do not override a competent adult's autonomous refusal; justice
Nightingale College — BSN 225 — Grade A Answer Key Page 2
,BSN 225 — HESI RN Specialty Fundamentals of Nursing Exam V2 Edition
(D) is irrelevant to this individual decision. The ANA Code of Ethics and NCLEX-RN test plan emphasize patient
self-determination.
Q6: A 76-year-old client is admitted with a stroke and is now unresponsive. The family produces a valid
durable power of attorney for health care (DPOA-HC) designating the client's spouse as the health care
proxy. The provider recommends a feeding tube. The spouse declines. Which action should the nurse take?
A. Insert the feeding tube as ordered because the client's life is in danger and the spouse is emotionally
compromised.
B. Notify the hospital ethics committee and delay all nutrition pending review.
C. Honor the spouse's decision as the designated health care proxy and document the refusal, the presence
of the DPOA-HC, and provider notification. *[CORRECT]*
D. Ask the adult children to override the spouse because next of kin must reach consensus.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The Patient Self-Determination Act requires facilities to honor advance directives. A designated DPOA-HC agent has
the legal authority to make decisions consistent with the client's known wishes or best interest. The spouse's refusal is binding unless
there is evidence of conflict of interest or violation of the client's known wishes. Inserting the tube (A) constitutes battery. The ethics
committee (B) is for unresolved conflicts, not unilateral overrides. Adult children (D) cannot override a designated agent. HESI
and NCLEX emphasize advance directives and patient rights.
Q7: A nurse administers 10 units of regular insulin subcutaneously instead of the ordered 5 units. The
client is conscious and the error is recognized immediately. After notifying the provider and the charge
nurse, which action should the nurse take NEXT?
A. File an incident report and document the error in the medical record, including the time, dose, and
provider notification. *[CORRECT]*
B. File an incident report but do not document the error in the medical record to avoid legal liability.
C. Document only that the provider was notified and continue to monitor the client's glucose.
D. Wait until the end of the shift to file the incident report so the team can review the case together.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: An incident report is an internal quality improvement document used to track trends and prevent recurrence. The
medication error itself and the provider notification must also be documented in the medical record (the fact of the error and the
clinical response), while the incident report is filed separately. Failing to document in the medical record (B) constitutes
falsification; documenting only provider notification (C) omits critical clinical information; delaying the report (D) compromises
accuracy. The HESI RN Specialty blueprint tests documentation principles under the Management of Care domain.
Q8: An RN is assigned to four clients and is preparing to delegate care to a licensed practical nurse (LPN).
Which client is the MOST appropriate to assign to the LPN?
A. A client who is 4 hours post-coronary angioplasty with sheath removal and requires frequent vascular
assessments.
B. A stable client with pneumonia receiving oral antibiotics and IV fluids who requires routine monitoring
and medication administration. *[CORRECT]*
C. A newly admitted client with chest pain of unknown etiology awaiting serial troponins.
D. A client with new-onset confusion and a glucose of 50 mg/dL requiring IV dextrose administration.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The LPN scope of practice includes caring for stable clients with predictable outcomes and administering routine
medications and IV fluids. The stable pneumonia client (B) fits these criteria. The post-angioplasty client (A) requires high-level
Nightingale College — BSN 225 — Grade A Answer Key Page 3
, BSN 225 — HESI RN Specialty Fundamentals of Nursing Exam V2 Edition
assessment for vascular complications; the chest pain client (C) requires RN-level assessment and triage; the hypoglycemic client
(D) requires emergency IV intervention and ongoing RN assessment. The NCSBN Model Nursing Practice Act and the Five Rights
of Delegation frame this assignment decision.
Q9: A client is 6 hours postoperative from a total knee arthroplasty. Which task is most appropriate for the
RN to delegate to the UAP?
A. Instruct the UAP to assist the client to the bathroom for the first time postoperatively.
B. Instruct the UAP to ambulate the client in the hallway with a walker for the first time.
C. Instruct the UAP to obtain vital signs and report a blood pressure less than 100/60 or pain greater than
5/10. *[CORRECT]*
D. Instruct the UAP to assess the surgical incision for drainage and redness.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: UAP may measure vital signs and report specific parameters defined by the RN; this is a routine task with clear,
standardized directions. Initial ambulation (B) of a fresh postoperative orthopedic client requires RN assessment and presence due
to fall risk, hypotension risk, and surgical precautions. Bathroom transfers (A) for a 6-hour post-op client are RN scope. Incision
assessment (D) is RN scope. The NCSBN delegation decision tree specifies that initial, complex, or unstable situations require RN
judgment.
Q10: An RN is reviewing tasks that need to be completed. Which task should NOT be delegated to an LPN
on a medical-surgical unit?
A. Administering oral medications to a stable client with hypertension.
B. Changing a sterile dressing on a client with a stage III pressure injury.
C. Administering IV push morphine 4 mg to a client with acute postoperative pain. *[CORRECT]*
D. Monitoring intake and output and reporting findings to the RN.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: IV push administration of high-alert medications such as morphine is generally outside LPN scope in most states and
requires RN-level assessment, particularly for respiratory depression and analgesic response. Oral medication administration (A),
sterile dressing changes (B), and I&O monitoring (D) are within LPN scope when the client is stable. The NCSBN Model Nursing
Practice Act limits LPN practice to stable clients with predictable outcomes. IV push narcotics are a frequent source of delegation
errors and are commonly tested on HESI and NCLEX-RN.
Q11: The nurse is caring for a client with multiple needs. Using Maslow's hierarchy of needs, which
problem should the nurse address FIRST?
A. The client reports feeling anxious about an upcoming diagnostic procedure.
B. The client has a prescription for a low-sodium diet but states, "I do not understand what to eat."
C. The client's oxygen saturation is 90% on room air and the respiratory rate is 28/min. *[CORRECT]*
D. The client reports feeling lonely and asks if a family member can stay overnight.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Maslow's hierarchy prioritizes physiological needs (oxygenation) above safety, love/belonging, esteem, and
self-actualization needs. The client with oxygen saturation of 90% and tachypnea has an unmet physiological need requiring
immediate intervention. Anxiety (A) is a self-esteem/emotional need; teaching deficit (B) is a safety/cognitive need; loneliness (D) is
a love/belonging need. All are valid, but physiological needs take precedence. The HESI prioritization framework explicitly
references Maslow.
Nightingale College — BSN 225 — Grade A Answer Key Page 4
