PN 3006 FINAL EXAM ACTUAL EXAM COMPLETE
QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED VERIFIED ANSWERS
(100% CORRECT ANSWERS) /ALREADY GRADED A+
1|Page
,PN 3006 FINAL EXAMINATION
2026/2027 Examination
Total Questions: 200
Instructions:
• Answer all questions.
• Select the single best answer.
• Each question has four answer choices: A, B, C, and D.
• Select only ONE answer for each question.
SECTION 1: NURSING FUNDAMENTALS AND ASSESSMENT (Questions 1–25)
Q1. A nurse is preparing to assess a client’s abdomen. In which order should the nurse perform
the assessment techniques?
A. Palpation, percussion, inspection, auscultation
B. Inspection, auscultation, percussion, palpation
C. Auscultation, inspection, palpation, percussion
D. Inspection, palpation, percussion, auscultation
Correct Answer: B. Inspection, auscultation, percussion, palpation
Rationale: The correct sequence for abdominal assessment is inspection, auscultation,
percussion, and palpation. Auscultation is performed before percussion and palpation because these
techniques can alter bowel sounds, leading to inaccurate findings.
Q2. A nurse is documenting a client’s report of nausea and dizziness. How should this
information be classified?
A. Objective data
B. Subjective data
C. Diagnostic data
D. Secondary data
Correct Answer: B. Subjective data
Rationale: Subjective data are information the client reports that cannot be directly observed or
measured by the nurse. Nausea and dizziness are sensations experienced by the client and are
therefore subjective findings.
Q3. A client has gained 4 kg over 24 hours. The nurse should assess the client for which priority
complication?
A. Dehydration
B. Fluid volume excess
C. Malnutrition
D. Muscle wasting
Correct Answer: B. Fluid volume excess
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, Rationale: A weight gain of approximately 1 kg per day or more generally indicates fluid
retention rather than tissue gain. The nurse should assess for signs of fluid overload, including
edema, crackles, and jugular venous distention.
Q4. A nurse is preparing to administer a medication via the intramuscular route using the Z-track
technique. What is the primary purpose of this technique?
A. To reduce pain at the injection site
B. To prevent medication from leaking into subcutaneous tissue
C. To increase the rate of medication absorption
D. To allow for a larger volume of medication to be administered
Correct Answer: B. To prevent medication from leaking into subcutaneous tissue
Rationale: The Z-track technique involves displacing the skin laterally before injection and
releasing it after withdrawal. This creates a zigzag path that seals the medication in the muscle,
preventing irritating medications from tracking back into subcutaneous tissue.
Q5. A nurse is assessing a client who has been receiving intravenous therapy for 3 days. The
nurse notes warmth, redness, and tenderness along the vein. Which complication should the nurse
suspect?
A. Infiltration
B. Phlebitis
C. Fluid overload
D. Air embolism
Correct Answer: B. Phlebitis
Rationale: Phlebitis is inflammation of the vein characterized by warmth, redness, tenderness,
and sometimes a palpable cord along the vein. Infiltration presents with swelling and coolness at the
site without redness along the vein.
Q6. A client is prescribed a 1500 mL fluid restriction over 24 hours. The client has consumed 600
mL in the first 10 hours. How much fluid can the client consume in the remaining 14 hours?
A. 600 mL
B. 750 mL
C. 900 mL
D. 1000 mL
Correct Answer: C. 900 mL
Rationale: The remaining allowance is calculated by subtracting the consumed volume from the
total restriction: 1500 mL minus 600 mL equals 900 mL available for the remaining 14 hours.
Q7. A nurse is caring for a client with a prescription for contact precautions. Which personal
protective equipment is required before entering the room?
A. Mask and goggles only
B. Gown and gloves
C. N95 respirator and gown
D. Gloves only
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, Correct Answer: B. Gown and gloves
Rationale: Contact precautions require a gown and gloves for all contact with the client or
potentially contaminated surfaces. A mask and goggles are required for droplet precautions, and an
N95 respirator is used for airborne precautions.
Q8. A nurse is preparing to insert a urinary catheter for a female client. The nurse identifies the
urethral meatus. How far should the catheter be advanced after urine begins to flow?
A. 1 inch
B. 2 inches
C. 3 inches
D. 4 inches
Correct Answer: B. 2 inches
Rationale: After urine flow is established in a female client, the catheter should be advanced an
additional 1 to 2 inches to ensure the balloon is fully within the bladder before inflation. Advancing
further risks injury to the bladder wall.
Q9. A nurse is assessing a client with a suspected urinary tract infection. Which early
manifestation should the nurse anticipate?
A. Flank pain
B. Dysuria
C. Chills
D. Nausea and vomiting
Correct Answer: B. Dysuria
Rationale: Dysuria, or painful urination, is an early and common manifestation of urinary tract
infection. Flank pain and chills typically indicate upper urinary tract involvement, such as
pyelonephritis, rather than an early uncomplicated UTI.
Q10. A client is scheduled for an intravenous pyelogram. Immediately after the procedure, the
nurse should monitor the client for which priority complication?
A. Urinary retention
B. Allergic reaction to contrast material
C. Hematuria
D. Hypotension
Correct Answer: B. Allergic reaction to contrast material
Rationale: Intravenous pyelogram involves injection of iodinated contrast material, which carries
a risk of allergic reaction. The nurse should monitor for signs of anaphylaxis, including urticaria,
bronchospasm, and hypotension, immediately following the procedure.
Q11. A nurse is evaluating a client’s understanding of a low-sodium diet. Which food selection
indicates the client needs further teaching?
A. Fresh chicken breast
B. Canned vegetable soup
4|Page
QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED VERIFIED ANSWERS
(100% CORRECT ANSWERS) /ALREADY GRADED A+
1|Page
,PN 3006 FINAL EXAMINATION
2026/2027 Examination
Total Questions: 200
Instructions:
• Answer all questions.
• Select the single best answer.
• Each question has four answer choices: A, B, C, and D.
• Select only ONE answer for each question.
SECTION 1: NURSING FUNDAMENTALS AND ASSESSMENT (Questions 1–25)
Q1. A nurse is preparing to assess a client’s abdomen. In which order should the nurse perform
the assessment techniques?
A. Palpation, percussion, inspection, auscultation
B. Inspection, auscultation, percussion, palpation
C. Auscultation, inspection, palpation, percussion
D. Inspection, palpation, percussion, auscultation
Correct Answer: B. Inspection, auscultation, percussion, palpation
Rationale: The correct sequence for abdominal assessment is inspection, auscultation,
percussion, and palpation. Auscultation is performed before percussion and palpation because these
techniques can alter bowel sounds, leading to inaccurate findings.
Q2. A nurse is documenting a client’s report of nausea and dizziness. How should this
information be classified?
A. Objective data
B. Subjective data
C. Diagnostic data
D. Secondary data
Correct Answer: B. Subjective data
Rationale: Subjective data are information the client reports that cannot be directly observed or
measured by the nurse. Nausea and dizziness are sensations experienced by the client and are
therefore subjective findings.
Q3. A client has gained 4 kg over 24 hours. The nurse should assess the client for which priority
complication?
A. Dehydration
B. Fluid volume excess
C. Malnutrition
D. Muscle wasting
Correct Answer: B. Fluid volume excess
2|Page
, Rationale: A weight gain of approximately 1 kg per day or more generally indicates fluid
retention rather than tissue gain. The nurse should assess for signs of fluid overload, including
edema, crackles, and jugular venous distention.
Q4. A nurse is preparing to administer a medication via the intramuscular route using the Z-track
technique. What is the primary purpose of this technique?
A. To reduce pain at the injection site
B. To prevent medication from leaking into subcutaneous tissue
C. To increase the rate of medication absorption
D. To allow for a larger volume of medication to be administered
Correct Answer: B. To prevent medication from leaking into subcutaneous tissue
Rationale: The Z-track technique involves displacing the skin laterally before injection and
releasing it after withdrawal. This creates a zigzag path that seals the medication in the muscle,
preventing irritating medications from tracking back into subcutaneous tissue.
Q5. A nurse is assessing a client who has been receiving intravenous therapy for 3 days. The
nurse notes warmth, redness, and tenderness along the vein. Which complication should the nurse
suspect?
A. Infiltration
B. Phlebitis
C. Fluid overload
D. Air embolism
Correct Answer: B. Phlebitis
Rationale: Phlebitis is inflammation of the vein characterized by warmth, redness, tenderness,
and sometimes a palpable cord along the vein. Infiltration presents with swelling and coolness at the
site without redness along the vein.
Q6. A client is prescribed a 1500 mL fluid restriction over 24 hours. The client has consumed 600
mL in the first 10 hours. How much fluid can the client consume in the remaining 14 hours?
A. 600 mL
B. 750 mL
C. 900 mL
D. 1000 mL
Correct Answer: C. 900 mL
Rationale: The remaining allowance is calculated by subtracting the consumed volume from the
total restriction: 1500 mL minus 600 mL equals 900 mL available for the remaining 14 hours.
Q7. A nurse is caring for a client with a prescription for contact precautions. Which personal
protective equipment is required before entering the room?
A. Mask and goggles only
B. Gown and gloves
C. N95 respirator and gown
D. Gloves only
3|Page
, Correct Answer: B. Gown and gloves
Rationale: Contact precautions require a gown and gloves for all contact with the client or
potentially contaminated surfaces. A mask and goggles are required for droplet precautions, and an
N95 respirator is used for airborne precautions.
Q8. A nurse is preparing to insert a urinary catheter for a female client. The nurse identifies the
urethral meatus. How far should the catheter be advanced after urine begins to flow?
A. 1 inch
B. 2 inches
C. 3 inches
D. 4 inches
Correct Answer: B. 2 inches
Rationale: After urine flow is established in a female client, the catheter should be advanced an
additional 1 to 2 inches to ensure the balloon is fully within the bladder before inflation. Advancing
further risks injury to the bladder wall.
Q9. A nurse is assessing a client with a suspected urinary tract infection. Which early
manifestation should the nurse anticipate?
A. Flank pain
B. Dysuria
C. Chills
D. Nausea and vomiting
Correct Answer: B. Dysuria
Rationale: Dysuria, or painful urination, is an early and common manifestation of urinary tract
infection. Flank pain and chills typically indicate upper urinary tract involvement, such as
pyelonephritis, rather than an early uncomplicated UTI.
Q10. A client is scheduled for an intravenous pyelogram. Immediately after the procedure, the
nurse should monitor the client for which priority complication?
A. Urinary retention
B. Allergic reaction to contrast material
C. Hematuria
D. Hypotension
Correct Answer: B. Allergic reaction to contrast material
Rationale: Intravenous pyelogram involves injection of iodinated contrast material, which carries
a risk of allergic reaction. The nurse should monitor for signs of anaphylaxis, including urticaria,
bronchospasm, and hypotension, immediately following the procedure.
Q11. A nurse is evaluating a client’s understanding of a low-sodium diet. Which food selection
indicates the client needs further teaching?
A. Fresh chicken breast
B. Canned vegetable soup
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