NUR 354 Pharmacology II Exam 2 Comprehensive Review
Questions and Correct Answers plus Rationales | Already
Graded A+ | New 2026-2027 Update | ASU
Which of the following best describes the primary mechanism of action of sodium
channel blockers in the treatment of cardiac dysrhythmias?
A) They increase sodium influx, accelerating depolarization
B) They block sodium channels, reducing the rate of depolarization and
conduction velocity
C) They prolong the action potential duration by blocking potassium channels
D) They increase conduction velocity through the atrioventricular node
Correct Answer: They block sodium channels, reducing the rate of depolarization
and conduction velocity
Rationale: Sodium channel blockers (Class I antiarrhythmics) work by blocking fast
sodium channels, which reduces the rate of phase 0 depolarization and slows
conduction velocity. This action helps suppress abnormal automaticity and
reentrant dysrhythmias. They do not increase sodium influx or primarily block
potassium channels.
,What is the primary purpose of monitoring serum digoxin levels in a patient with
heart failure?
A) To assess renal function
B) To evaluate liver metabolism
C) To prevent toxicity due to a narrow therapeutic index
D) To determine the appropriate diuretic dose
Correct Answer: To prevent toxicity due to a narrow therapeutic index
Rationale: Digoxin has a narrow therapeutic range (0.5–2.0 ng/mL). Levels above
this range can cause toxicity, including dysrhythmias, nausea, and visual
disturbances such as halos around dark objects. Regular monitoring helps
maintain therapeutic levels and prevent adverse effects.
According to the RAAS system, which hormone directly stimulates aldosterone
release from the adrenal cortex?
A) Renin
B) Angiotensin I
C) Angiotensin II
,D) Angiotensin-converting enzyme
Correct Answer: Angiotensin II
Rationale: Angiotensin II is a potent vasoconstrictor that also stimulates the
release of aldosterone from the adrenal cortex. Aldosterone then promotes
sodium and water reabsorption in the distal tubule, increasing blood volume and
blood pressure. Renin catalyzes the formation of angiotensin I, which is converted
to angiotensin II by ACE.
Which finding is most consistent with loop diuretic-induced hypokalemia?
A) Muscle weakness and cardiac dysrhythmias
B) Hypertension and bradycardia
C) Hypercalcemia and kidney stones
D) Hyperglycemia and glycosuria
Correct Answer: Muscle weakness and cardiac dysrhythmias
Rationale: Loop diuretics such as furosemide cause potassium loss by inhibiting
sodium-potassium-chloride reabsorption in the loop of Henle. Hypokalemia can
lead to muscle weakness, fatigue, and serious cardiac dysrhythmias. Patients
, should be monitored with serum potassium levels and may require
supplementation.
What is the primary mechanism of action of ACE inhibitors in treating
hypertension?
A) Blocking calcium channels in vascular smooth muscle
B) Inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II
C) Blocking beta-1 receptors in the heart
D) Directly dilating arterioles by relaxing smooth muscle
Correct Answer: Inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II
Rationale: ACE inhibitors such as lisinopril block the enzyme that converts
angiotensin I to angiotensin II. This reduces vasoconstriction and aldosterone
secretion, lowering blood pressure and reducing afterload. They also decrease the
degradation of bradykinin, which can cause a dry cough.
A nurse is preparing to administer amiodarone IV. Which action is most
appropriate?
A) Administer rapid IV push over 1 minute
Questions and Correct Answers plus Rationales | Already
Graded A+ | New 2026-2027 Update | ASU
Which of the following best describes the primary mechanism of action of sodium
channel blockers in the treatment of cardiac dysrhythmias?
A) They increase sodium influx, accelerating depolarization
B) They block sodium channels, reducing the rate of depolarization and
conduction velocity
C) They prolong the action potential duration by blocking potassium channels
D) They increase conduction velocity through the atrioventricular node
Correct Answer: They block sodium channels, reducing the rate of depolarization
and conduction velocity
Rationale: Sodium channel blockers (Class I antiarrhythmics) work by blocking fast
sodium channels, which reduces the rate of phase 0 depolarization and slows
conduction velocity. This action helps suppress abnormal automaticity and
reentrant dysrhythmias. They do not increase sodium influx or primarily block
potassium channels.
,What is the primary purpose of monitoring serum digoxin levels in a patient with
heart failure?
A) To assess renal function
B) To evaluate liver metabolism
C) To prevent toxicity due to a narrow therapeutic index
D) To determine the appropriate diuretic dose
Correct Answer: To prevent toxicity due to a narrow therapeutic index
Rationale: Digoxin has a narrow therapeutic range (0.5–2.0 ng/mL). Levels above
this range can cause toxicity, including dysrhythmias, nausea, and visual
disturbances such as halos around dark objects. Regular monitoring helps
maintain therapeutic levels and prevent adverse effects.
According to the RAAS system, which hormone directly stimulates aldosterone
release from the adrenal cortex?
A) Renin
B) Angiotensin I
C) Angiotensin II
,D) Angiotensin-converting enzyme
Correct Answer: Angiotensin II
Rationale: Angiotensin II is a potent vasoconstrictor that also stimulates the
release of aldosterone from the adrenal cortex. Aldosterone then promotes
sodium and water reabsorption in the distal tubule, increasing blood volume and
blood pressure. Renin catalyzes the formation of angiotensin I, which is converted
to angiotensin II by ACE.
Which finding is most consistent with loop diuretic-induced hypokalemia?
A) Muscle weakness and cardiac dysrhythmias
B) Hypertension and bradycardia
C) Hypercalcemia and kidney stones
D) Hyperglycemia and glycosuria
Correct Answer: Muscle weakness and cardiac dysrhythmias
Rationale: Loop diuretics such as furosemide cause potassium loss by inhibiting
sodium-potassium-chloride reabsorption in the loop of Henle. Hypokalemia can
lead to muscle weakness, fatigue, and serious cardiac dysrhythmias. Patients
, should be monitored with serum potassium levels and may require
supplementation.
What is the primary mechanism of action of ACE inhibitors in treating
hypertension?
A) Blocking calcium channels in vascular smooth muscle
B) Inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II
C) Blocking beta-1 receptors in the heart
D) Directly dilating arterioles by relaxing smooth muscle
Correct Answer: Inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II
Rationale: ACE inhibitors such as lisinopril block the enzyme that converts
angiotensin I to angiotensin II. This reduces vasoconstriction and aldosterone
secretion, lowering blood pressure and reducing afterload. They also decrease the
degradation of bradykinin, which can cause a dry cough.
A nurse is preparing to administer amiodarone IV. Which action is most
appropriate?
A) Administer rapid IV push over 1 minute
