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Hesi Cat Exam - Cat Hesi Exit Newest 2026 Actual Exam | Complete 300 Real Exam Questions And Correct Verified Answers | Already Graded A+ (Most Recent!!)

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HESI CAT EXAM - CAT HESI EXIT NEWEST 2026 ACTUAL EXAM | COMPLETE 300 REAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT VERIFIED ANSWERS | ALREADY GRADED A+ (MOST RECENT!!) 1. A male client who takes carvedilol (Coreg) 25 mg twice daily is admitted with atrial flutter. His ejection fraction (EF) is 30%, his blood pressure is 190/86, and he has a history of type 1 diabetes mellitus. The healthcare provider prescribes dronedarone (Multaq) 400 mg PO twice daily. Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse? A. Chronic dermatitis B. Abdominal pain C. Sever headache D. Sinus bradycardia Answer: D. Sinus bradycardia Rationale: Dronedarone can cause bradycardia, and immediate intervention is required when the heart rate drops dangerously low. 2. It is most important for the nurse to use an IV pump and/or Buretrol, an in-line volume control device, when initiating IV therapy for a client following which surgical procedure? A. Femoral popliteal bypass B. Colostomy C. Craniotomy D. Total hip replacement Answer: C. Craniotomy Rationale: A craniotomy client requires strict fluid volume control to prevent increased intracranial pressure, making an IV pump or Buretrol essential. 3. When assessing a client at 32-weeks gestation, the nurse determines that her deep tendon reflexes (DTRs) are 4+. What action should the nurse take first? A. Notify the healthcare provider B. Assess the client for pitting edema C. No action is required since this is a normal finding D. Determine the client's blood pressure Answer: D. Determine the client's blood pressure Rationale: Hyperreflexia in pregnancy is a sign of preeclampsia, so the nurse must first assess blood pressure as part of the immediate evaluation. 4. The nurse is teaching a client newly diagnosed with diabetes mellitus the signs of hypoglycemia. What symptom should be included in the description of early signs of hypoglycemia? A. Difficulty swallowing B. Polyuria C. Tremors D. Bradycardia Answer: C. Tremors Rationale: Tremors are an early sympathetic nervous system response to hypoglycemia, along with sweating and palpitations. 5. The nurse should question the use of dopamine, an adrenergic agonist, for a client with which assessment finding? A. Currently receiving a loop diuretic B. Experiencing ventricular fibrillation C. Blood pressure if 90/60 D. Is taking a tricyclic antidepressant Answer: B. Experiencing ventricular fibrillation Rationale: Dopamine is contraindicated in ventricular fibrillation because it can worsen arrhythmias and should not be used in this rhythm. 6. Following two defibrillation shocks, the client's ECG continues to indicate ventricular fibrillation (VF). Which intervention should the nurse implement next? A. Resume CPR immediately B. Perform the third defibrillation shock C. Obtain an arterial blood gas sample D. Administer an IV bolus of epinephrine Answer: A. Resume CPR immediately Rationale: After two shocks, CPR should be resumed immediately to maintain circulation before the next rhythm check and shock. 7. The practical nurse (PN) reports the patterns of urinary frequency and volume for several clients. Which finding necessitates further assessment by the RN? A. Voiding 300 ml clear yellow urine q4h B. Voiding 50 ml cloudy urine every hour C. Total indwelling catheter output of 1800 ml in 24 hours D. 400 ml amber urine by straight catheter q6h Answer: B. Voiding 50 ml cloudy urine every hour Rationale: Frequent small volumes of cloudy urine suggest a urinary tract infection or obstruction requiring further assessment. 8. An infant is admitted to the newborn nursery, and is believed to have Down syndrome. Which physical finding might the nurse expect to see? A. Maxillary hypoplasia B. Postural hypotonia C. Janeway spots on the palms D. Fusion of cranial sutures Answer: B. Postural hypotonia Rationale: Postural hypotonia (decreased muscle tone) is a classic physical finding in infants with Down syndrome. 9. The nurse is performing an admission physical assessment of a newborn who is small for gestational age (SGA). Which finding should the nurse report immediately to the pediatric healthcare provider? A. High pitched shrill cry B. Widened, tense, bulging fontanel C. Head circumference of 35 cm (14 inches) D. Heel stick glucose of 65 mg/dl Answer: A. High pitched shrill cry Rationale: A high-pitched shrill cry in an SGA newborn may indicate neurological irritation or hypoglycemia and requires immediate reporting. 10. The nurse notes that an elderly client who is receiving a continuous tube feeding is increasingly fatigued and confused. Which assessment is most important for the nurse to complete before notifying the healthcare provider? A. Bowel sounds B. Breath sounds C. Skin turgor D. Capillary refill Answer: A. Bowel sounds Rationale: Fatigue and confusion in a tube-fed client may indicate aspiration or intolerance, so bowel sounds are essential before notifying the provider.

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HESI CAT EXAM - CAT HESI EXIT NEWEST 2026
ACTUAL EXAM | COMPLETE 300 REAL EXAM
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT VERIFIED ANSWERS |
ALREADY GRADED A+ (MOST RECENT!!)


1. A male client who takes carvedilol (Coreg) 25 mg twice daily is admitted
with atrial flutter. His ejection fraction (EF) is 30%, his blood pressure is
190/86, and he has a history of type 1 diabetes mellitus. The healthcare
provider prescribes dronedarone (Multaq) 400 mg PO twice daily. Which
assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?



A. Chronic dermatitis

B. Abdominal pain

C. Sever headache

D. Sinus bradycardia



Answer: D. Sinus bradycardia

Rationale: Dronedarone can cause bradycardia, and immediate intervention
is required when the heart rate drops dangerously low.



2. It is most important for the nurse to use an IV pump and/or Buretrol, an in-
line volume control device, when initiating IV therapy for a client following
which surgical procedure?



A. Femoral popliteal bypass

B. Colostomy

C. Craniotomy

D. Total hip replacement

,Answer: C. Craniotomy

Rationale: A craniotomy client requires strict fluid volume control to prevent
increased intracranial pressure, making an IV pump or Buretrol essential.



3. When assessing a client at 32-weeks gestation, the nurse determines that
her deep tendon reflexes (DTRs) are 4+. What action should the nurse take
first?



A. Notify the healthcare provider

B. Assess the client for pitting edema

C. No action is required since this is a normal finding

D. Determine the client's blood pressure



Answer: D. Determine the client's blood pressure

Rationale: Hyperreflexia in pregnancy is a sign of preeclampsia, so the nurse
must first assess blood pressure as part of the immediate evaluation.



4. The nurse is teaching a client newly diagnosed with diabetes mellitus the
signs of hypoglycemia. What symptom should be included in the description
of early signs of hypoglycemia?



A. Difficulty swallowing

B. Polyuria

C. Tremors

D. Bradycardia



Answer: C. Tremors

Rationale: Tremors are an early sympathetic nervous system response to
hypoglycemia, along with sweating and palpitations.

,5. The nurse should question the use of dopamine, an adrenergic agonist, for
a client with which assessment finding?



A. Currently receiving a loop diuretic

B. Experiencing ventricular fibrillation

C. Blood pressure if 90/60

D. Is taking a tricyclic antidepressant



Answer: B. Experiencing ventricular fibrillation

Rationale: Dopamine is contraindicated in ventricular fibrillation because it
can worsen arrhythmias and should not be used in this rhythm.



6. Following two defibrillation shocks, the client's ECG continues to indicate
ventricular fibrillation (VF). Which intervention should the nurse implement
next?



A. Resume CPR immediately

B. Perform the third defibrillation shock

C. Obtain an arterial blood gas sample

D. Administer an IV bolus of epinephrine



Answer: A. Resume CPR immediately

Rationale: After two shocks, CPR should be resumed immediately to maintain
circulation before the next rhythm check and shock.



7. The practical nurse (PN) reports the patterns of urinary frequency and
volume for several clients. Which finding necessitates further assessment by
the RN?

, A. Voiding 300 ml clear yellow urine q4h

B. Voiding 50 ml cloudy urine every hour

C. Total indwelling catheter output of 1800 ml in 24 hours

D. 400 ml amber urine by straight catheter q6h



Answer: B. Voiding 50 ml cloudy urine every hour

Rationale: Frequent small volumes of cloudy urine suggest a urinary tract
infection or obstruction requiring further assessment.



8. An infant is admitted to the newborn nursery, and is believed to have
Down syndrome. Which physical finding might the nurse expect to see?



A. Maxillary hypoplasia

B. Postural hypotonia

C. Janeway spots on the palms

D. Fusion of cranial sutures



Answer: B. Postural hypotonia

Rationale: Postural hypotonia (decreased muscle tone) is a classic physical
finding in infants with Down syndrome.



9. The nurse is performing an admission physical assessment of a newborn
who is small for gestational age (SGA). Which finding should the nurse report
immediately to the pediatric healthcare provider?



A. High pitched shrill cry

B. Widened, tense, bulging fontanel

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