PEAT 4 Exam Questions and Answers A+ Graded 2026/2027

PEAT 4 Exam Questions and Answers A+ Graded 2026/2027 1. ) A patient with leukemia has developed thrombocytopenia after a bone-marrow transplant. Which of the following measures is indicative of the status of the thrombocytopenia? 1. T4 lymphocyte count 2. Red blood cell count 3. Platelet count 4. White blood cell count - ANSWER 3 Thrombocytopenia is an acute or chronic decrease in the number of platelets in the circulation. The T4 lymphocyte count is used to assess immune status in patients with HIV or AIDS. The red blood cell count is utilized to assess for presence of anemia, and the white blood cell count would be examined to determine presence of infection or degree of immunosuppression. 2. Which of the following factors is considered to be a primary risk factor for atherosclerosis? 1. Stress 2. Obesity 3. Cigarette smoking 4. Sedentary lifestyle - ANSWER 3 High blood pressure, cigarette smoking, and hyperlipidemia are direct or primary risk factors for atherosclerosis. Secondary risk factors include age, gender, race, obesity, stress, and activity level. 3. Which of the following statements is an appropriately written short-term goal? 1. In 2 weeks, the patient will increase walking distance from 50 ft to 100 ft (15 m to 30 m) with a wheeled walker. 2. The patient will walk 100 ft (30 m) with a wheeled walker and minimal assistance in 3 weeks. 3. In 4 weeks, the patient will walk with minimal assistance 100 ft (30 m) without loss of balance. 4. The patient will increase walking distance from 50 ft to 100 ft (15 m to 30 m) with a wheeled walker independently by discharge. - ANSWER 2 4. Option 1 does not specify the amount of assistance. Option 2 is a measurable, specific, and objective goal. Option 3 does not specify the device the patient will be using. Option 4 is a goal that is to be achieved by discharge, which would be a long-term goal, not a short-term goal. 5. Which of the following nerves innervates the pelvic floor muscles? 1. Sciatic 2. Pudendal 3. Inferior gluteal 4. Genitofemoral - ANSWER 2 The pelvic floor muscles are innervated by sacral nerve roots S2-S4 through the pudendal nerve. The inferior gluteal nerve is a motor nerve that innervates the gluteus maximus. The sciatic nerve contains nerve roots from L4-S3 and innervates multiple muscles in the lower leg. The genitofemoral nerve, which is from L1-L2, is a cutaneous nerve that is sensory and not motor. 6. A patient with a recent onset of rheumatoid arthritis is MOST likely to report which of the following symptoms? 1. Heat intolerance 2. Malaise and fatigue 3. Tension headaches 4. Nausea and diarrhea - ANSWER 2 Malaise and fatigue are common symptoms during the beginning stages of rheumatoid arthritis. Tension headaches, heat intolerance, and nausea and diarrhea are not associated with rheumatoid arthritis. 7. For a patient with type 1 diabetes who is completing a cardiovascular fitness program, what change in diabetic management is MOST likely to be instituted as fitness increases? 1. Switching to oral rather than injected medication 2. Decreasing caloric intake for 2 to 3 hours following exercise sessions 3. Decreasing the amount of insulin taken daily 4. Increasing the amount of insulin taken daily - ANSWER 3 Exercise has been shown to increase sensitivity of the insulin receptors, leading to a decrease in the amount of insulin required. Administration of medication is dictated by tolerance and efficacy of the medication and would not necessarily be altered by exercise. In patients with moderate hyperglycemia, exercise can lead to hypoglycemia for periods of 24 to 48 hours after exercise; therefore, an increase in caloric intake, particularly intake of carbohydrates, would be essential. 8. A physical therapist is evaluating a patient who had a cerebrovascular accident and is exhibiting poor foot and ankle control. When asked to lift the foot more during the midswing phase of gait, the patient dorsiflexes the ankle with excessive eversion. To correct this problem, facilitory electromyographic biofeedback is MOST likely to be used with which of the following muscles? 1. Extensor digitorum longus 2. Tibialis anterior 3. Fibularis (peroneus) brevis 4. Flexor hallucis longus - ANSWER 2 The patient has too much eversion during the midswing phase. This is probably caused by too much activity in the extensor digitorum longus or extensor hallucis longus. To correct the situation, the tibialis anterior should be facilitated, because it dorsiflexes and inverts but doesn't cause eversion. The fibularis brevis, an everter, would cause plantar flexion of the foot rather than dorsiflexion. The flexor hallucis longus does not dorsiflex the ankle. 9. What skin change associated with aging has the GREATEST effect on wound healing? 1. Reduction in sensation 2. Decreased elasticity of the skin 3. Decreased epidermal proliferation 4. Change in pigmentation - ANSWER 3 Wounds heal via a complex process involving re-epithelialization. With advanced aging, the rate of epidermal proliferation decreases. 10. Which of the following questions is MOST appropriate for a functional outcome measurement tool? 1. How high can you lift your arm? 2. How long have you had this pain? 3. How often do you walk with a limp? 4. How much does this leg bother you? - ANSWER 3 Option 1 does not ask about function. It is an impairment-related question, not a function-related question. Options 2 and 4 do not ask about function, and even with improvement, neither would relate to function. Option 3 is taken from the Short Musculoskeletal Function Assessment. It addresses function and can be used as an outcome question. 11. A patient has adhesive capsulitis of the shoulder joint. The range-of-motion examination reveals restricted lateral (external) rotation and abduction of the shoulder. Which of the following mobilization procedures should be performed for the patient FIRST? 1. Posterior glide 2. Distraction 3. Anterior glide 4. Lateral (external) rotation - ANSWER 2 For this patient, the first mobilization procedure would be distraction of the glenohumeral joint. The distraction separates the joint surfaces and is used as a test of joint play. The distraction can also help increase joint play. Distraction may also be used in conjunction with the other mobilization techniques listed. Later mobilization techniques would most likely include anterior glide. 12. A patient with right piriformis syndrome is referred to physical therapy for evaluation and intervention. The patient's history includes a total hip arthroplasty on the right side 2 years ago. Which of the following interventions requires added precaution for this patient? 1. Transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation 2. Continuous ultrasound 3. Hot packs 4. Massage to the right hip - ANSWER 2 The only one of the interventions listed that requires precaution because of the total hip replacement is continuous ultrasound. However, that does not mean that ultrasound is contraindicated for this patient. Transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation may be used over metal implants. Hot packs and massage would not affect the total hip prosthesis. 13. An adult patient who was involved in a motor vehicle accident has sustained multiple traumas, including fractured ribs on the right side. The patient is unconscious, intubated, and receiving mechanical ventilation in the intensive care unit. Chest radiographs show the development of an infiltrate in the right lower lobe during the past 2 days. Crackles and wheezing are heard over the right lower lung fields. Which of the following chest physical therapy programs is MOST appropriate? 1. Manual hyperventilation and suctioning while positioned on the left side 2. Positioning in supine for suctioning, followed by manual hyperventilation while positioned on the left side 3. Suctioning, percussion, and vibration while positioned on the right side 4. Positioning on the left side for deep breathing exercises only - ANSWER 1 In order to optimally clear the congestion that has developed in the right lower lobe, the patient should be positioned on the left side to allow gravity to help drain the secretions to the proximal airways. This patient is also unconscious and intubated, so in addition to drainage, manual hyperinflation is necessary to provide increased ventilation to help to mobilize secretions, then suctioning to clear the secretions. Suctioning first then hyperventilating while in left-sidelying is less effective than the order suggested in Option 1. Positioning on the right side would not drain the right lower lobe, and since the patient is lying on the right side, the only place to percuss and vibrate would be the left side, which has no pathology. 14. A physical therapy student's learning style is described as a preference for active experimentation and concrete experience. For mastering evaluation of musculoskeletal dysfunction, which of the following educational strategies would be the LEAST effective approach for the supervising physical therapist to use with this student? 1. Practicing and providing feedback on examination skills 2. Role-playing the interview process 3. Assigning readings about the dysfunction 4. Self-pacing performance of the evaluation - ANSWER 3 Practice and feedback of examination skills, role playing the interview process, and self-paced performance involve active learning with other people in everyday situations. Active learning relies on feeling and intuition rather than logic and reasoning. Readings do not meet the learning needs of active experimentation or concrete experience. 15. A patient is performing a Phase I (inpatient) cardiac rehabilitation exercise session. The physical therapist should terminate low-level activity if which of the following changes occurs? 1. The diastolic blood pressure increases to 120 mm Hg. 2. The respiratory rate increases to 20 breaths per minute. 3. The systolic blood pressure increases by 20 mm Hg. 4. The heart rate increases by 20 bpm. - ANSWER 1 During Phase I (inpatient) cardiac rehabilitation, vital sign parameters with activity that warrant termination are: diastolic blood pressure of 110 mm Hg or greater, systolic blood pressure above 210 mm Hg or an increase greater than 20 mm Hg from resting, and a heart rate that increases beyond 20 bpm above resting. The normal resting respiratory rate can range from 12 to 20 breaths per minute in adults, so an increase to 20 breaths per minute with low-level activity would not be a reason to terminate the activity. 16. A patient is being evaluated for possible carpal tunnel syndrome, and a nerve conduction velocity test is performed. Which of the following findings would MOST strongly support the diagnosis? 1. Decreased latency at the elbow. 2. Decreased latency at the carpal tunnel. 3. Increased latency at the carpal tunnel. 4. Increased latency at the forearm. - ANSWER 3 Nerve conduction above and below the local nerve compression is usually normal. Latency is typically increased, not decreased, across the carpal tunnel compression site. Nerve conduction above and below the local nerve compression is usually normal. 17. When examining a patient with a history of alcohol abuse, a physical therapist notes that the patient demonstrates fine resting tremors and hyperactive reflexes. The patient reports frequent right upper quadrant pain. Which of the following additional signs is MOST likely? 1. Jaundice 2. Hyperhidrosis 3. Hypotension 4. Nocturnal cough - ANSWER 1 With a history of alcohol abuse and the presence of fine resting tremors and right upper quadrant pain, the patient is presenting a history and signs and symptoms consistent with liver disease. Jaundice is a skin change associated with disease of the hepatic system. Hyperhidrosis can be present with endocrine disorders but is not associated with liver disease. Hypotension is not listed as a sign of liver disorders. A nocturnal cough can be associated with rheumatic fever, but is not characteristic of liver disease. 18. Which of the following examination findings would be expected in a patient who also had sustained ankle clonus? 1. An upgoing great toe when the sole of the foot is stroked 2. Weakness of ankle plantar flexors with one-repetition strength testing 3. Absence of sensation to sharp/dull testing over the posterior lower leg 4. Hyporeflexia when deep tendon reflexes are elicited in the lower leg - ANSWER 2 The C7 nerve root supplies sensation in the dorsal middle finger. 19. Which of the following sensory testing locations corresponds to the C7 nerve root? 1. Volar aspect of the little finger (5th digit) 2. Dorsal aspect of the middle finger (3rd digit) 3. Lateral aspect of the upper arm 4. Medial aspect of the upper arm - ANSWER 1 Sustained ankle clonus indicates a central nervous system dysfunction, as does the presence of a Babinski sign (that is, an upgoing great toe with stroking of the plantar foot). The other options are associated with lower motor neuron problems.