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Nurs 6107 Advanced Pathophysiology Exam Questions And Correct Answers With Rationales| Instant Download

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Practice questions covering advanced pathophysiology topics like inflammasome activation, HFpEF, CKD hyperkalemia, ARDS shunting, type 2 diabetes insulin resistance, Alzheimer tau tangles, DIC labs, and tumor suppressor genes. Each question includes the correct answer with a rationale explaining why the other options are wrong, so you can review mechanisms and prepare for your NURS 6107 exam.

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, Question 1
A cell exhibits constitutive activation of the NLRP3 inflammasome with
excessive IL-1beta and IL-18 release. Which molecular consequence most
directly drives the associated autoinflammatory phenotype?
A. Enhanced caspase-1-mediated cleavage of gasdermin D, inducing
pyroptosis and cytokine release
B. Increased NF-kB nuclear translocation with upregulated TNF-alpha
transcription
C. Defective autophagy leading to accumulation of damaged
mitochondria
D. Overactivation of JAK-STAT signaling with suppressed regulatory
T-cell function
Correct Answer: A - Enhanced caspase-1-mediated cleavage of
gasdermin D, inducing pyroptosis and cytokine release


RATIONALE
NLRP3 inflammasome activation canonically activates caspase-1,
which cleaves gasdermin D to form pores, causing pyroptosis and
release of IL-1beta/IL-18; this is the direct effector mechanism.
Options B, C, and D describe parallel or upstream pathways that do
not directly mediate the NLRP3-driven autoinflammatory phenotype.

Question 2
In a patient with heart failure with preserved ejection fraction (HFpEF), which
pathophysiologic alteration best explains elevated left ventricular filling
pressures despite normal contractility?
A. Increased myocardial stiffness from titin isoform switching and
interstitial fibrosis
B. Reduced sarcoplasmic reticulum calcium reuptake via SERCA2a
downregulation
C. Upregulation of beta-1 adrenergic receptors with enhanced inotropy



Page 2

, D. Decreased afterload from systemic vasodilation


Correct Answer: A - Increased myocardial stiffness from titin
isoform switching and interstitial fibrosis


RATIONALE
HFpEF is characterized by diastolic dysfunction driven by increased
passive stiffness due to titin isoform shifts (N2B predominance) and
fibrosis, impairing relaxation and elevating filling pressures. Options
B, C, and D are more typical of HFrEF or do not explain preserved
ejection fraction with high filling pressures.

Question 3
Which renal adaptation in chronic kidney disease most directly sustains
hyperkalemia despite reduced glomerular filtration rate?
A. Increased aldosterone secretion from the adrenal zona glomerulosa
B. Downregulation of colonic potassium excretion
C. Reduced distal nephron flow rate and impaired potassium secretion
D. Enhanced proximal tubular potassium reabsorption
Correct Answer: C - Reduced distal nephron flow rate and
impaired potassium secretion


RATIONALE
In CKD, hyperkalemia results primarily from decreased distal delivery
of sodium and water, reducing flow-dependent potassium secretion in
the distal nephron. Options A, B, and D are incorrect because
aldosterone is often relatively deficient or resistance exists, colonic
excretion is upregulated, and proximal potassium handling is not the
main determinant.




Page 3

, Question 4
A patient with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) exhibits refractory
hypoxemia. Which mechanism best accounts for the poor response to
supplemental oxygen?
A. Increased dead space ventilation from pulmonary embolism
B. Intrapulmonary shunt due to alveolar filling and collapse
C. Hypoventilation from respiratory muscle fatigue
D. Diffusion limitation from thickened alveolar membrane
Correct Answer: B - Intrapulmonary shunt due to alveolar filling
and collapse


RATIONALE
Refractory hypoxemia in ARDS is primarily due to intrapulmonary
shunting, where blood perfuses non-ventilated alveoli, and
supplemental oxygen cannot reach those areas. Options A, C, and D
contribute to hypoxemia but are not the primary cause of
oxygen-refractory hypoxemia in ARDS.

Question 5
Which molecular defect best explains the insulin resistance seen in type 2
diabetes mellitus?
A. Autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells
B. Post-receptor signaling defects in the PI3K/Akt pathway
C. Impaired proinsulin conversion to insulin
D. Mutations in the insulin receptor gene
Correct Answer: B - Post-receptor signaling defects in the
PI3K/Akt pathway




Page 4

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