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Nrms 5190 Advanced Pathophysiology Exam Questions And Correct Answers Plus Rationales| Instant Download

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Practice questions with answers and rationales covering advanced pathophysiology topics like cellular injury, sepsis and CARS, cardiogenic shock hemodynamics, nephrotic syndrome, diabetes types, chronic kidney disease, BRCA mutations, ARDS, hepatic encephalopathy, DIC, APC gene mutations, and septic shock lactate. Each question includes a clear explanation so you can review why the correct answer is right and prepare for your exam.

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, Question 1
A cell exposed to prolonged hypoxia exhibits decreased ATP, increased
cytosolic Ca², and mitochondrial permeability transition pore opening. Which
downstream event most directly commits this cell to irreversible injury?
A. Activation of caspases-8 and -10 via death receptor signaling
B. Calpain-mediated cytoskeletal degradation and membrane
phospholipid loss
C. Rapid restoration of oxidative phosphorylation upon reperfusion
D. Upregulation of HSP70 chaperone activity
Correct Answer: B - Calpain-mediated cytoskeletal degradation
and membrane phospholipid loss


RATIONALE
Irreversible injury is marked by severe membrane damage from
calpain activation and phospholipase-mediated lipid degradation,
which cannot be reversed even if oxygen is restored. Caspase-8/10
activation indicates extrinsic apoptosis, not necrotic commitment;
reperfusion can paradoxically worsen injury; HSP70 is cytoprotective,
not a commitment step.

Question 2
In a patient with sepsis, which cytokine pattern best characterizes the transition
from the initial pro-inflammatory phase to the compensatory anti-inflammatory
response syndrome (CARS)?
A. Persistently elevated TNF- with undetectable IL-10
B. Predominance of IL-1 and IL-6 with suppressed TGF-
C. Elevated IL-10 and TGF- with reduced HLA-DR expression on
monocytes
D. Increased IFN- with enhanced macrophage phagocytosis
Correct Answer: C - Elevated IL-10 and TGF- with reduced
HLA-DR expression on monocytes


Page 2

, RATIONALE
CARS is defined by a shift toward anti-inflammatory mediators
(IL-10, TGF-) and monocyte deactivation (reduced HLA-DR), leading
to immunoparalysis. Options A, B, and D describe persistent or
enhanced pro-inflammatory states inconsistent with CARS.

Question 3
Which hemodynamic profile is most consistent with cardiogenic shock due to
acute myocardial infarction?
A. Cardiac index 1.8 L/min/m², PCWP 28 mmHg, SVR 1800 dynes-s/cm
B. Cardiac index 4.2 L/min/m², PCWP 8 mmHg, SVR 600 dynes-s/cm
C. Cardiac index 2.5 L/min/m², PCWP 12 mmHg, SVR 900 dynes-s/cm
D. Cardiac index 3.0 L/min/m², PCWP 15 mmHg, SVR 1100 dynes-s/cm
Correct Answer: A - Cardiac index 1.8 L/min/m², PCWP 28
mmHg, SVR 1800 dynes-s/cm


RATIONALE
Cardiogenic shock features low cardiac index (<2.2), elevated PCWP
(>18), and compensatory high SVR. Option B describes distributive
shock; C and D represent normal or near-normal profiles.

Question 4
A patient with nephrotic syndrome develops a thrombotic event. Which
pathophysiologic alteration most directly contributes to this hypercoagulable
state?
A. Increased urinary loss of antithrombin III
B. Enhanced hepatic synthesis of protein C
C. Elevated plasma fibrinogen secondary to inflammation
D. Decreased platelet activation due to hypoalbuminemia
Correct Answer: A - Increased urinary loss of antithrombin III



Page 3

, RATIONALE
Nephrotic syndrome causes urinary loss of antithrombin III, a key
anticoagulant, leading to a prothrombotic state. Protein C is not
increased; fibrinogen may rise but is less directly linked;
hypoalbuminemia does not decrease platelet activation.

Question 5
Which statement best distinguishes type I from type II diabetes mellitus at the
pathophysiologic level?
A. Type I involves insulin resistance, while type II is purely autoimmune.
B. Type I results from absolute insulin deficiency due to -cell destruction,
while type II involves relative deficiency and insulin resistance.
C. Type I is characterized by amylin overproduction, while type II
features glucagon deficiency.
D. Type I typically presents with hyperinsulinemia, while type II presents
with hypoinsulinemia.
Correct Answer: B - Type I results from absolute insulin
deficiency due to -cell destruction, while type II involves relative
deficiency and insulin resistance.


RATIONALE
Type I diabetes is caused by autoimmune destruction of pancreatic
-cells leading to absolute insulin deficiency. Type II involves insulin
resistance and progressive -cell dysfunction, not autoimmunity.

Question 6
A patient with chronic kidney disease has an eGFR of 25 mL/min/1.73m².
Which compensatory mechanism initially maintains acid-base balance but
eventually contributes to bone disease?
A. Increased renal ammonia genesis and bicarbonate reabsorption
B. Hyperventilation-induced respiratory alkalosis


Page 4

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