NURS 5334 Advanced Pharmacology Quiz 2 | 100% Original Multiple-
Choice Practice Questions & Answers
Master your advanced prescribing principles and ace your exam with these
original, high-yield multiple-choice practice questions for NURS 5334 Advanced
Pharmacology Quiz 2. Features complex clinical case scenarios, verified
answers, and comprehensive rationales covering receptor dynamics,
pharmacokinetics, and critical drug classes to guarantee success.
Section 1: Pharmacokinetics & Pharmacodynamics (Questions
1–40)
1. Which pharmacokinetic parameter describes the fraction of an administered
dose that reaches systemic circulation unchanged?
A) Volume of distribution
B) Bioavailability
C) Half-life
D) Clearance
Rationale: Bioavailability measures the rate and extent to which an active drug
ingredient is absorbed and becomes available at the site of action or systemic circulation.
,2. Which phase II reaction converts lipid-soluble drugs into hydrophilic
compounds for excretion?
A) Oxidation via CYP450
B) Reduction of polar groups
C) Conjugation with endogenous polar molecules
D) Hydrolysis of ester bonds
Rationale: Phase II reactions involve conjugation (glucuronidation, sulfation, acetylation)
with polar endogenous substances, converting lipid-soluble drugs into hydrophilic
compounds easily cleared by the kidneys or bile.
3. Which cytochrome P450 enzyme metabolizes the largest percentage of clinically
prescribed drugs?
A) CYP1A2
B) CYP2C9
C) CYP2D6
D) CYP3A4
Rationale: CYP3A4 is the most abundant CYP450 enzyme in the liver and intestine,
metabolizing roughly half of all marketed medications.
4. What term defines a drug that binds to a receptor and activates it but produces
submaximal efficacy?
A) Competitive antagonist
B) Partial agonist
C) Inverse agonist
,D) Noncompetitive antagonist
Rationale: Partial agonists bind to receptors and stimulate a response, but their intrinsic
efficacy is lower than that of full agonists.
5. What is the primary effect of chronic administration of a CYP450 enzyme
inducer on a co-administered substrate?
A) Increased plasma concentrations and toxicity
B) Decreased plasma concentrations and potential therapeutic failure
C) Immediate inhibition of renal excretion
D) Irreversible binding to plasma proteins
Rationale: Enzyme inducers upregulate CYP enzyme synthesis, accelerating
biotransformation and elimination of substrate drugs.
6. Which phase of clinical trials tests a new drug in healthy volunteers primarily to
evaluate safety and pharmacokinetics?
A) Phase I
B) Phase II
C) Phase III
D) Phase IV
Rationale: Phase I trials involve a small group of healthy volunteers to evaluate safety,
pharmacokinetics, and tolerability.
7. What is the therapeutic index of a drug?
, A) The ratio of lethal dose to effective dose
B) The ratio of toxic dose to therapeutic dose
C) The ratio of drug concentration in plasma to tissue
D) The ratio of bioavailability to clearance
Rationale: The therapeutic index is the ratio of the dose that produces toxicity to the dose
that produces a therapeutic effect. A narrow therapeutic index requires careful monitoring.
8. Which route of administration has 100% bioavailability?
A) Oral
B) Intramuscular
C) Intravenous
D) Subcutaneous
Rationale: Intravenous administration bypasses absorption barriers, delivering the drug
directly into systemic circulation with 100% bioavailability.
9. What is the first-pass effect?
A) Metabolism of a drug by the liver before it reaches systemic circulation
B) Excretion of a drug by the kidneys
C) Distribution of a drug to target tissues
D) Binding of a drug to plasma proteins
Rationale: The first-pass effect reduces the bioavailability of orally administered drugs as
they pass through the liver before entering systemic circulation.
Choice Practice Questions & Answers
Master your advanced prescribing principles and ace your exam with these
original, high-yield multiple-choice practice questions for NURS 5334 Advanced
Pharmacology Quiz 2. Features complex clinical case scenarios, verified
answers, and comprehensive rationales covering receptor dynamics,
pharmacokinetics, and critical drug classes to guarantee success.
Section 1: Pharmacokinetics & Pharmacodynamics (Questions
1–40)
1. Which pharmacokinetic parameter describes the fraction of an administered
dose that reaches systemic circulation unchanged?
A) Volume of distribution
B) Bioavailability
C) Half-life
D) Clearance
Rationale: Bioavailability measures the rate and extent to which an active drug
ingredient is absorbed and becomes available at the site of action or systemic circulation.
,2. Which phase II reaction converts lipid-soluble drugs into hydrophilic
compounds for excretion?
A) Oxidation via CYP450
B) Reduction of polar groups
C) Conjugation with endogenous polar molecules
D) Hydrolysis of ester bonds
Rationale: Phase II reactions involve conjugation (glucuronidation, sulfation, acetylation)
with polar endogenous substances, converting lipid-soluble drugs into hydrophilic
compounds easily cleared by the kidneys or bile.
3. Which cytochrome P450 enzyme metabolizes the largest percentage of clinically
prescribed drugs?
A) CYP1A2
B) CYP2C9
C) CYP2D6
D) CYP3A4
Rationale: CYP3A4 is the most abundant CYP450 enzyme in the liver and intestine,
metabolizing roughly half of all marketed medications.
4. What term defines a drug that binds to a receptor and activates it but produces
submaximal efficacy?
A) Competitive antagonist
B) Partial agonist
C) Inverse agonist
,D) Noncompetitive antagonist
Rationale: Partial agonists bind to receptors and stimulate a response, but their intrinsic
efficacy is lower than that of full agonists.
5. What is the primary effect of chronic administration of a CYP450 enzyme
inducer on a co-administered substrate?
A) Increased plasma concentrations and toxicity
B) Decreased plasma concentrations and potential therapeutic failure
C) Immediate inhibition of renal excretion
D) Irreversible binding to plasma proteins
Rationale: Enzyme inducers upregulate CYP enzyme synthesis, accelerating
biotransformation and elimination of substrate drugs.
6. Which phase of clinical trials tests a new drug in healthy volunteers primarily to
evaluate safety and pharmacokinetics?
A) Phase I
B) Phase II
C) Phase III
D) Phase IV
Rationale: Phase I trials involve a small group of healthy volunteers to evaluate safety,
pharmacokinetics, and tolerability.
7. What is the therapeutic index of a drug?
, A) The ratio of lethal dose to effective dose
B) The ratio of toxic dose to therapeutic dose
C) The ratio of drug concentration in plasma to tissue
D) The ratio of bioavailability to clearance
Rationale: The therapeutic index is the ratio of the dose that produces toxicity to the dose
that produces a therapeutic effect. A narrow therapeutic index requires careful monitoring.
8. Which route of administration has 100% bioavailability?
A) Oral
B) Intramuscular
C) Intravenous
D) Subcutaneous
Rationale: Intravenous administration bypasses absorption barriers, delivering the drug
directly into systemic circulation with 100% bioavailability.
9. What is the first-pass effect?
A) Metabolism of a drug by the liver before it reaches systemic circulation
B) Excretion of a drug by the kidneys
C) Distribution of a drug to target tissues
D) Binding of a drug to plasma proteins
Rationale: The first-pass effect reduces the bioavailability of orally administered drugs as
they pass through the liver before entering systemic circulation.
