NURS 5334 Advanced Pharmacology Quiz 2 | 100% Original Multiple-
Choice Practice Questions & Answers 2026
Master your advanced prescribing principles and ace your exam with these
original, high-yield multiple-choice practice questions for NURS 5334 Advanced
Pharmacology Quiz 2. Features complex clinical case scenarios, verified
answers, and comprehensive rationales covering receptor dynamics,
pharmacokinetics, and critical drug classes to guarantee success.
1. Which term describes the movement of a drug from its site of administration
into the bloodstream?
A) Distribution
B) Absorption
C) Metabolism
D) Excretion
Rationale: Absorption is the process by which a drug moves from its site of administration
into the bloodstream. Distribution, metabolism, and excretion are subsequent
pharmacokinetic phases.
2. Which factor would most increase the rate of drug absorption after oral
administration?
A) Decreased gastric motility
B) Increased gastric motility
,C) Decreased gastric blood flow
D) Increased gastric pH
Rationale: Increased gastric motility accelerates the movement of drug into the small
intestine, where most absorption occurs, thereby increasing the rate of absorption.
3. Which route of administration bypasses the first-pass effect?
A) Oral
B) Rectal
C) Sublingual
D) Enteric-coated oral
Rationale: Sublingual administration allows the drug to be absorbed directly into the
systemic circulation via the venous drainage under the tongue, bypassing hepatic first-
pass metabolism.
4. What is the primary determinant of a drug's ability to cross the blood-brain
barrier?
A) Molecular weight
B) Protein binding
C) Lipid solubility
D) Volume of distribution
Rationale: Highly lipid-soluble drugs readily cross the blood-brain barrier because it is
composed of lipid-rich endothelial cells with tight junctions.
,5. Which statement best describes a drug with a narrow therapeutic index?
A) It has a wide margin between therapeutic and toxic doses
B) It requires careful monitoring due to a small margin between therapeutic and
toxic doses
C) It is safe to administer without monitoring
D) It has no adverse effects
Rationale: A narrow therapeutic index means the difference between therapeutic and
toxic doses is small, requiring close monitoring of drug levels to avoid toxicity or
therapeutic failure.
6. Which medication is most likely to be affected by a change in gastric pH?
A) Metformin
B) Ketoconazole
C) Amlodipine
D) Atorvastatin
Rationale: Ketoconazole requires an acidic gastric environment for dissolution and
absorption. Antacids or proton pump inhibitors can significantly reduce its absorption.
7. A patient with a PEG tube requires oral medications. Which dosage form is most
appropriate?
A) Extended-release tablet
B) Enteric-coated tablet
C) Immediate-release liquid
D) Sublingual tablet
, Rationale: Liquid formulations are appropriate for PEG tube administration because they
do not require dissolution and can be flushed through the tube. Extended-release and
enteric-coated forms should not be crushed.
8. A patient is taking warfarin and is prescribed a medication that is a CYP2C9
inhibitor. What is the expected effect?
A) Decreased INR
B) Increased INR and bleeding risk
C) No effect on INR
D) Decreased warfarin levels
Rationale: Warfarin is metabolized by CYP2C9. Inhibiting this enzyme increases warfarin
levels, raising the INR and bleeding risk.
9. Which medication is a CYP3A4 inducer?
A) Clarithromycin
B) Rifampin
C) Ketoconazole
D) Grapefruit juice
Rationale: Rifampin is a potent CYP3A4 inducer that decreases levels of drugs
metabolized by this enzyme. Clarithromycin, ketoconazole, and grapefruit juice are
inhibitors.
10. A patient taking levothyroxine should avoid taking which supplement within 4
hours of the medication?
Choice Practice Questions & Answers 2026
Master your advanced prescribing principles and ace your exam with these
original, high-yield multiple-choice practice questions for NURS 5334 Advanced
Pharmacology Quiz 2. Features complex clinical case scenarios, verified
answers, and comprehensive rationales covering receptor dynamics,
pharmacokinetics, and critical drug classes to guarantee success.
1. Which term describes the movement of a drug from its site of administration
into the bloodstream?
A) Distribution
B) Absorption
C) Metabolism
D) Excretion
Rationale: Absorption is the process by which a drug moves from its site of administration
into the bloodstream. Distribution, metabolism, and excretion are subsequent
pharmacokinetic phases.
2. Which factor would most increase the rate of drug absorption after oral
administration?
A) Decreased gastric motility
B) Increased gastric motility
,C) Decreased gastric blood flow
D) Increased gastric pH
Rationale: Increased gastric motility accelerates the movement of drug into the small
intestine, where most absorption occurs, thereby increasing the rate of absorption.
3. Which route of administration bypasses the first-pass effect?
A) Oral
B) Rectal
C) Sublingual
D) Enteric-coated oral
Rationale: Sublingual administration allows the drug to be absorbed directly into the
systemic circulation via the venous drainage under the tongue, bypassing hepatic first-
pass metabolism.
4. What is the primary determinant of a drug's ability to cross the blood-brain
barrier?
A) Molecular weight
B) Protein binding
C) Lipid solubility
D) Volume of distribution
Rationale: Highly lipid-soluble drugs readily cross the blood-brain barrier because it is
composed of lipid-rich endothelial cells with tight junctions.
,5. Which statement best describes a drug with a narrow therapeutic index?
A) It has a wide margin between therapeutic and toxic doses
B) It requires careful monitoring due to a small margin between therapeutic and
toxic doses
C) It is safe to administer without monitoring
D) It has no adverse effects
Rationale: A narrow therapeutic index means the difference between therapeutic and
toxic doses is small, requiring close monitoring of drug levels to avoid toxicity or
therapeutic failure.
6. Which medication is most likely to be affected by a change in gastric pH?
A) Metformin
B) Ketoconazole
C) Amlodipine
D) Atorvastatin
Rationale: Ketoconazole requires an acidic gastric environment for dissolution and
absorption. Antacids or proton pump inhibitors can significantly reduce its absorption.
7. A patient with a PEG tube requires oral medications. Which dosage form is most
appropriate?
A) Extended-release tablet
B) Enteric-coated tablet
C) Immediate-release liquid
D) Sublingual tablet
, Rationale: Liquid formulations are appropriate for PEG tube administration because they
do not require dissolution and can be flushed through the tube. Extended-release and
enteric-coated forms should not be crushed.
8. A patient is taking warfarin and is prescribed a medication that is a CYP2C9
inhibitor. What is the expected effect?
A) Decreased INR
B) Increased INR and bleeding risk
C) No effect on INR
D) Decreased warfarin levels
Rationale: Warfarin is metabolized by CYP2C9. Inhibiting this enzyme increases warfarin
levels, raising the INR and bleeding risk.
9. Which medication is a CYP3A4 inducer?
A) Clarithromycin
B) Rifampin
C) Ketoconazole
D) Grapefruit juice
Rationale: Rifampin is a potent CYP3A4 inducer that decreases levels of drugs
metabolized by this enzyme. Clarithromycin, ketoconazole, and grapefruit juice are
inhibitors.
10. A patient taking levothyroxine should avoid taking which supplement within 4
hours of the medication?
