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Exam (elaborations)

PEAT 1 | UPDATED Questions with 100% Verified Answers

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PEAT 1 | UPDATED Questions with 100% Verified Answers

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PEAT 1 | UPDATED Questions with 100% Verified Answers

Question:
1. In splinting or immobilization, the functional position of
the hand includes wrist:
A. extension, phalangeal flexion, and thumb abduction
B. extension, phalangeal extension and thumb abduction
C. extension, phalangeal flexion and thumb adduction
D. flexion, phalangeal flexion and thumb adduction

Answer:
A. The functional position of the wrist and hand describes the
position from which the optimal function is most likely to
occur. This position is described as
a) slight wrist extension
b) slight ulnar deviationc) fingers flexed at the MCP, PIP &
DIP joints and d) thumb slightly abducted.


Question:
2. During pregnancy, which of the following is
contraindicated?
A. curl-ups
B. bridging
C. double leg lifts
D. deep breathing with forced expiration

Answer:
C. During pregnancy and postpartum period, the stretched
abdominal muscles are unable to stabilize the lower back, as
the legs are raised. Attempting to perform double leg lifts can
overwork the abdominal muscle and cause damage to the
spinal joints.


Question:
3. A target heart rate is determined for individual entering a
training program in order to:

,A. regulate exercise intensity
B. estimate energy expenditure
C. control blood pressure and specific heart rate
D. ensure participants exercise at maximal capacity

Answer:
A. Exercise intensity can be expressed as O2 uptake during
activity. HR and O2 uptake have a relatively lower linear
relationship. Therefore, utilizing a target HR will ensure that
the appropriate exercise intensity is being achieved.
Estimation of energy expenditure requires measurement of O2
consumption that is then calculated into calories metabolized
during the activity. BP cannot be controlled at specific HR.
Exercising at maximal capacity does not achieve aerobic
training benefits and is unsafe for the majority of patient
population.


Question:
4. A herniated nucleus pulposus at the L3-L4 disc produces
which of the following clinical findings?
A. Numbness in the back of the calf and dorsiflexor weakness
B. Numbness in the anteromedial thigh and knee and
quadriceps weakness
C. Numbness and weakness in the thigh, legs, feet and/or
perineum
D. Numbness in the back of the calf and atrophy of
gastrocnemius and soleus

Answer:
B. Pressure on the L3 L4 root causes numbness in the
anteromedial thigh and knee and quads weakness. Numbness
in the back of the calf and dorsiflexor weakness is indicative
of L4, L5 and S1 nerve root involvement. Numbness and
weakness in the thighs, legs and feet and perineum is
indicative of L2 through S1 nerve root involvement.

,Numbness in theback of the calf and atrophy of gastrocsoleus
is indicative of the S1 nerve root involvement.


Question:
5. The intervention for a patient with limitation of shoulder
flexion and medial rotation includes mobilization. Which
glide is the-most appropriate for mobilizing this shoulder to
specifically increase the restricted motion?
A. Posterior
B. Anterior
C. Medial
D. Lateral

Answer:
A. The most appropriate mobilization technique for increasing
both shoulder flexion and medial rotation would be posterior
(dorsal) glide. Lateral glide may be used as a general joint
distraction technique. Medial glide would not be appropriate
to increase flexion and medial rotation. Anterior glide is used
to increase extension and lateral rotation.


Question:
6. Which of the following techniques is MOST appropriate
for a patient with low postural tone?
A. Slow regular rocking while sitting on the treatment bolster
B. Continuous pressure to the skin overlying the back muscle
C. Low frequency vibration to the back muscle
D. Joint approximation applied through the shoulder to the
trunk

Answer:
D. Options A, B & C are techniques used to decrease postural
tone, which is not indicated for this patient. Option D is the
most appropriate technique for improving low postural tone.

, Question:
7. Which skin change associated with aging has the
GREATEST effect on wound healing?
A. Reduction in sensation
B. Decrease elasticity of the skin
C. Decrease epidermal proliferation
D. Change in pigmentation

Answer:
C. Wounds heal via a complex process involving re-
epithelialization. With advanced aging, the rate of epidermal
proliferation decreases.


Question:
8. Which of the following techniques is MOST effective in
teaching an IDDM patient about foot care?
A. Reassure the patient that no infection will occur if the
directions are followed, then demonstrate procedure
B. Tell patient how foot care is performed, then watch
patient's performance
C. Watch patient perform foot inspection and caution him that
amputation results from unattended skin problems
D. Have the patient demonstrate a foot inspection, then give
feedback on patient's performance

Answer:
D. Learning the process of foot care is a psychomotor skill
and effective strategies to teach psychomotor skills include
repeat demonstration by the patient of the skill followed by
feedback from the therapist to highlight what was performed
correctly and what areas need improvement. Reassurance
about prevention of infection with proper foot care would
primarily be a cognitive skill and does not ensure that the
patient can effectively perform proper foot care. Options B &
C do not include feedback that informs the patient about their

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