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NUR 210 PRINCIPLES OF PHARMACOLOGY EXAM 2 TEST BANK 2026/2027 PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND STUDY GUIDE ACCURATE EXAM

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NUR 210 PRINCIPLES OF PHARMACOLOGY EXAM 2 TEST BANK 2026/2027 PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND STUDY GUIDE ACCURATE EXAM

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NUR 210 PRINCIPLES OF PHARMACOLOGY EXAM 2 TEST BANK
2026/2027 PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND STUDY GUIDE ACCURATE EXAM
1. A patient with symptomatic bradycardia has an order for atropine. Before
administering the medication, the nurse reviews its pharmacologic action
and understands that atropine primarily produces which effect?
A. Increased parasympathetic stimulation of the sinoatrial node
B. Increased acetylcholine release at muscarinic receptors
C. Decreased muscarinic activity, allowing heart rate to increase
D. Direct stimulation of beta-2 receptors causing bronchodilation
Answer: C

2. A patient experiencing severe anaphylaxis develops wheezing, hypotension,
and airway swelling. The provider orders IM epinephrine. Which physiologic
response best explains why this medication is appropriate?
A. Alpha-1 vasoconstriction and beta-2 bronchodilation
B. Muscarinic stimulation and decreased cardiac output
C. Beta-1 blockade and peripheral vasodilation
D. Dopamine blockade and decreased sympathetic activity
Answer: A

3. A patient receiving an adrenergic agonist reports palpitations and develops
a heart rate of 132 beats/minute. Which receptor-mediated effect most
directly explains the increased heart rate?
A. Alpha-2 stimulation
B. Beta-1 stimulation
C. Beta-2 blockade
D. Muscarinic stimulation
Answer: B
4. A patient with asthma is prescribed a short-acting beta-2 agonist for acute
bronchospasm. Which assessment finding indicates the expected
therapeutic response?
A. Increased bronchial secretions



pg. 1

, B. Increased airway resistance
C. Reduced respiratory rate caused by sedation
D. Improved airflow with decreased wheezing
Answer: D

5. A patient receiving epinephrine for anaphylaxis develops mild tremor and
tachycardia. The nurse recognizes these findings as most consistent with
which pharmacologic effect?
A. Excessive muscarinic stimulation
B. Beta-adrenergic stimulation
C. Alpha-2 receptor blockade only
D. Cholinesterase inhibition
Answer: B
6. A patient with hypertension is prescribed an alpha-1 adrenergic blocker. The
nurse should teach the patient to change positions slowly primarily because
the medication can cause which problem?
A. Orthostatic hypotension
B. Severe hypoglycemia
C. Urinary retention
D. Bronchoconstriction
Answer: A

7. A patient taking an alpha-1 blocker reports dizziness when standing after
sitting for several hours. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate?
A. Encourage rapid position changes to improve circulation
B. Restrict oral fluids completely
C. Encourage gradual position changes and assess blood pressure
D. Administer an additional dose immediately
Answer: C
8. A patient receiving a beta-1 selective blocker for cardiovascular disease has
a pulse of 48 beats/minute before the scheduled dose. Which action should
the nurse prioritize?
A. Administer the medication because bradycardia is expected


pg. 2

, B. Hold the medication and assess the patient according to prescribed
parameters
C. Give the medication with caffeine
D. Administer half the dose without contacting the provider
Answer: B
9. A patient with asthma is prescribed a nonselective beta blocker. Why should
the nurse carefully evaluate this prescription?
A. The medication may cause excessive insulin secretion
B. The medication may increase acetylcholine release
C. The medication may cause severe diarrhea
D. Beta-2 blockade can produce bronchoconstriction
Answer: D
10. A patient taking propranolol asks why the medication should not be
stopped abruptly. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?
A. Abrupt withdrawal can produce rebound sympathetic effects and
cardiovascular complications
B. Stopping the medication immediately causes permanent renal failure
C. Abrupt withdrawal always causes severe hypoglycemia
D. The medication accumulates permanently in adipose tissue
Answer: A

11. A patient prescribed clonidine for hypertension asks how the medication
lowers blood pressure. Which explanation is most accurate?
A. It directly blocks beta-2 receptors in the lungs
B. It stimulates central alpha-2 receptors and reduces sympathetic outflow
C. It stimulates peripheral alpha-1 receptors
D. It increases norepinephrine release from sympathetic nerve endings
Answer: B
12. A patient taking clonidine reports excessive drowsiness and dry mouth.
Which nursing interpretation is most appropriate?
A. These findings can occur because of the medication's central
sympatholytic effects


pg. 3

, B. These findings prove that the patient has developed anaphylaxis
C. These findings indicate excessive beta-2 stimulation
D. These findings demonstrate therapeutic failure
Answer: A

13. A patient taking an adrenergic agonist develops severe hypertension,
headache, and palpitations. Which nursing action is the priority?
A. Encourage vigorous exercise
B. Assess vital signs and promptly report significant cardiovascular changes
C. Administer another dose to stabilize the patient
D. Encourage a high-sodium meal
Answer: B

14. A patient receiving a vasopressor through an IV develops pain, swelling, and
blanching around the infusion site. What complication should the nurse
suspect?
A. Hypoglycemia
B. Pulmonary edema
C. Extravasation with local tissue injury
D. Anticholinergic toxicity
Answer: C

15. A patient is prescribed phenylephrine for nasal congestion. The nurse
explains that the medication improves nasal airflow primarily through
which action?
A. Alpha-1-mediated vasoconstriction of nasal blood vessels
B. Beta-1-mediated increased cardiac contractility
C. Muscarinic stimulation of nasal glands
D. Beta-2-mediated relaxation of intestinal smooth muscle
Answer: A
16. A patient receiving a cholinergic agonist develops increased salivation,
abdominal cramping, diarrhea, and sweating. Which pharmacologic effect
best explains these findings?
A. Increased sympathetic stimulation


pg. 4

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