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WGU D236 Pathophysiology Readiness Assessment 2024 – Complete Questions with Verified Answers for FNP Exam Prep

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This is a 2024 version readiness assessment question and answer study guide for WGU D236 Pathophysiology, prepared as an exam preparation resource with verified answers and detailed feedback for each question. The document covers pathophysiology concepts relevant to family nurse practitioner (FNP) practice, including genetic counseling and amniocentesis for Down syndrome risk, Turner syndrome and monosomy X, Cri du chat syndrome with its characteristic high-pitched cry, microcephaly, hypertelorism, and hypotonia, adaptive immunity including cell-mediated and humoral responses, traumatic brain injury and minimally conscious state, the Glasgow Coma Scale, and psychiatric conditions including obsessions, generalized anxiety disorder, and schizophrenia with paranoia, delusions, and hallucinations. Additional topics include otitis media and peritonsillar abscess with "hot potato" voice, hyperthyroidism and Graves' disease, prediabetes with elevated triglycerides, type 2 diabetes macronutrient effects on postprandial glucose, type 1 and type 2 diabetes mellitus characteristics, endometrial cancer risk factors, precocious and delayed puberty, priapism and cocaine use, ovulation and luteinizing hormone surge, ovarian cysts, acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) and capillary hydrostatic pressure, asthma and immunoglobulin E, airway remodeling and bronchial hyperresponsiveness, hypertension and angiotensin II, cardiac hypertrophy, left-sided heart failure and pulmonary congestion, electrolyte imbalances in heart failure including hyponatremia and hypokalemia, chronic lymphocytic leukemia, pernicious anemia with macrocytic normochromic indices and peripheral neuropathy, tumor lysis syndrome, sickle cell trait and malaria protection, herpes zoster and shingles prodromal stage, atopic dermatitis in adults, pyelonephritis, renal failure and postrenal azotemia, diabetic nephropathy with proteinuria and decreased GFR, venous insufficiency, duodenal ulcer, reflux esophagitis and estrogen-progestin therapy, acute gouty arthritis and synovial fluid analysis, osteoarthritis and joint space narrowing, prerenal and postrenal azotemia, glomerulonephritis and renal biopsy, disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) and septicemia, chronic kidney disease staging with GFR and serum albumin, and sickle cell anemia immunization with pneumococcal vaccine. Each question is followed by its verified answer and supporting feedback, making this readiness assessment useful for exam preparation, concept review, and practice with pathophysiology and FNP-level clinical content. Students can use it to reinforce understanding of disease processes, diagnostic reasoning, and clinical decision-making. The course (WGU D236 Pathophysiology), document type (readiness assessment with verified answers), and content coverage are all verified from the uploaded file. No author or edition is stated beyond the 2024 version noted in the document, so these could not be further confirmed.

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WGU D236 Patho Readiness Assessment |
100% Correct Answers | Verified | Latest
2024 Version
What is the most common indication for genetic counseling?

-Maternal Age

-Drug exposure during the first trimester

-Increased maternal alpha-fetoprotein

-History of previous still birth - ✔✔Maternal Age



The FNP schedules a 38-year-old primigravida (first time pregnancy) for an amniocentesis at 16

weeks gestation. The FNP would explain that the purpose of this procedure is to:

-Assess for the possibility of twins

-Determine bilirubin level

-Perform genetic studies

-Assess L/S ratio - ✔✔Perform Genetic studies



Feedback: This woman's age puts her at risk for Down Syndrome



In the most commonly seen form of Turner Syndrome, how is the X chromosome affected?

-Each cell has only one X chromosome

-Some cells have two X chromosomes, while other cells have only one.

-Each cell has two X chromosomes, but part of the chromosome is missing.

-Each cell has an extra X chromosome. - ✔✔Each cell has only one X chromosome



Feedback: 45% of persons with Turner Syndrome have monosomy X meaning there is only one copy of
the X chromosome in each cell

,The FNP is assessing a newborn who is demonstrating a high-pitched cry, microcephaly, hypertelorism,
hypotonia, and a low birth weight. The FNP would suspect which of the following genetic conditions?

-Down Syndrome

-Cri du chat

-Charge syndrome

-Duncan disease - ✔✔Cri du chat



Feedback: The clinical symptoms of cri du chat syndrome usually include a high-pitched cat-like cry,
mental retardation, delayed development, distinctive facial features, small head size (microcephaly),
widely-spaced eyes (hypertelorism), low birth weight and weak muscle tone (hypotonia) in infancy.



When explaining the types of adaptive immunity, the FNP student is aware that:

-Adaptive immunity is a cell-mediated immune response which is carried out by T cells and B cells.

-Adaptive immunity is the level of immunity that all persons are born with.

-Adaptive immunity occurs when antibodies are passed from the mother to the fetus.

-Adaptive immunity occurs through immunization - ✔✔Adaptive immunity is a cell-mediated immune
response which is carried out by T cells and B cells.



Feedback: There are two types of adaptive immunity responses: the cell-mediated immune response,
which is carried out by T cells, and the humoral immune response, which is controlled by activated B
cells and antibodies.



A woman has sustained a traumatic brain injury. She is able to follow simple commands and can
manipulate objects. Which term describes this state?

-Coma

-Persistent vegetative state

-Minimally conscious

-Locked-in syndrome - ✔✔Minimally conscious



Feedback: When responses to the environment are seen, the patient is said to be in a minimally
conscious state

, Age and the admission of the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) are important diagnostic factors in TBI. Which
GCS score describes a severe TBI?

13-15

12-13

9-12

3-8 - ✔✔3-8



Feedback: The GCS is scored between 3 and 15, 3 being the worst and 15 the best.



Which term describes recurrent, intrusive thoughts or impulses?

-Hallucinations

-Compulsions

-Obsessions

-Delusions - ✔✔Obsessions



Feedback: Obsessions are recurrent and persistent thoughts, impulses, or images that cause distressing
emotions such as anxiety or disgust.



During an intake interview with a 26-year-old man diagnosed with generalized anxiety disorder, the FNP
might observe what type of behavior?

-An inflated sense of self

-Constant relation to future events

-Inability to concentrate and irritability when questioned

-Nervousness and fear of the FNP during the interview - ✔✔Inability to concentrate and irritability when
questioned



Feedback: Impaired concentration and irritability are major characteristics of GAD.



The FNP would expect which symptoms in a patient with a diagnosis of schizophrenia?

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