MATERNAL, NEWBORN & PEDIATRIC
NURSING
MATERNITY NURSING
PRACTICE EXAM 2026–2027
Pregnancy, Labor, Delivery & Postpartum Care
Maternity Nursing Practice Exam 2026–2027 | Practice Resource • Page 1
, Maternity Nursing Practice Exam 2026–2027
Pregnancy, Labor, Delivery & Postpartum Care
Practice examination focused on maternal nursing care across antepartum, intrapartum, postpartum, and
newborn periods.
Section 1: Antepartum Nursing Care
Question 1
A pregnant client at 10 weeks' gestation reports persistent nausea and vomiting and has been unable to keep
fluids down for 24 hours. Which assessment finding requires the nurse's priority attention?
A. Increased sensitivity to odors
B. Weight loss of 3 kg over 2 weeks
C. Occasional nausea in the morning
D. Food preferences that have changed
Correct Answer: B. Weight loss of 3 kg over 2 weeks
Rationale
Significant weight loss with persistent vomiting suggests hyperemesis gravidarum, which can cause
dehydration, electrolyte abnormalities, nutritional deficiencies, and ketonuria. The nurse should assess
hydration status, vital signs, urine output, laboratory values, and the ability to tolerate fluids.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
A: Increased sensitivity to odors is common during pregnancy and may contribute to nausea but is not the
priority concern. C: Mild morning nausea is common during early pregnancy. D: Changes in food preferences
can occur during pregnancy and are not by themselves evidence of a serious complication.
Question 2
The nurse is teaching a client who is 16 weeks pregnant about fetal development. Which statement by the client
indicates correct understanding?
A. "My fetus is beginning to develop all of its major organs now."
B. "My fetus can begin making sucking movements."
C. "The fetal lungs are fully mature at this stage."
D. "The fetus normally weighs about 3 kilograms at 16 weeks."
Correct Answer: B
Rationale
During the second trimester, the fetus develops increasingly coordinated movements, including sucking and
swallowing. Organ development begins much earlier, while maturation continues throughout pregnancy.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
A: Major organ development begins during the embryonic period, primarily in the first trimester. C: Fetal lungs
are not fully mature at 16 weeks. D: A fetus at 16 weeks weighs substantially less than 3 kg.
Question 3
A pregnant client asks why folic acid is recommended before conception and during early pregnancy. Which
response by the nurse is most appropriate?
A. "It prevents gestational diabetes."
Maternity Nursing Practice Exam 2026–2027 | Practice Resource • Page 2
, B. "It helps prevent neural tube defects."
C. "It prevents all congenital abnormalities."
D. "It guarantees that your baby will have a normal birth weight."
Correct Answer: B
Rationale
Adequate folic acid intake before conception and during early pregnancy reduces the risk of fetal neural tube
defects, including spina bifida and anencephaly.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
A: Folic acid does not specifically prevent gestational diabetes. C: No vitamin prevents all congenital
abnormalities. D: Folic acid does not guarantee a specific birth weight.
Question 4
A client at 28 weeks' gestation reports painless vaginal bleeding. Which condition should the nurse suspect
first?
A. Placenta previa
B. Abruptio placentae
C. Ectopic pregnancy
D. Ruptured uterus
Correct Answer: A. Placenta previa
Rationale
Painless, bright-red vaginal bleeding during the second half of pregnancy is a classic finding associated with
placenta previa, in which the placenta partially or completely covers the cervical opening.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
B: Abruptio placentae typically causes painful vaginal bleeding accompanied by uterine tenderness or rigidity.
C: Ectopic pregnancy usually occurs early in pregnancy rather than at 28 weeks. D: Uterine rupture is
uncommon and usually occurs during labor, particularly in clients with a uterine scar.
Question 5
A pregnant client with suspected placenta previa is admitted with vaginal bleeding. Which nursing action should
be avoided?
A. Monitoring maternal vital signs
B. Assessing fetal heart rate
C. Preparing the client for ultrasound
D. Performing a digital vaginal examination
Correct Answer: D
Rationale
A digital vaginal examination can disrupt the placenta and cause severe hemorrhage when placenta previa is
present or suspected. Fetal and maternal assessment should occur while avoiding procedures that may
provoke bleeding.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
A: Maternal vital signs help identify hemodynamic instability. B: Fetal heart-rate assessment is essential. C:
Ultrasound can help determine placental location and is commonly used in evaluation.
Maternity Nursing Practice Exam 2026–2027 | Practice Resource • Page 3
, Section 2: Pregnancy Complications
Question 6
A client at 34 weeks' gestation has a blood pressure of 164/112 mm Hg, severe headache, and blurred vision.
What is the nurse's priority action?
A. Encourage the client to ambulate
B. Place the client in a quiet environment and notify the provider
C. Offer a high-sodium snack
D. Reassure the client that these symptoms are expected
Correct Answer: B
Rationale
Severe hypertension accompanied by headache and visual disturbances indicates possible severe
preeclampsia and places the client at risk for seizures, stroke, placental abruption, and other complications.
Prompt assessment and intervention are required.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
A: Ambulation is not appropriate when severe preeclampsia is suspected. C: Increasing sodium intake is not an
appropriate treatment. D: These are potentially dangerous findings, not expected discomforts of pregnancy.
Question 7
A client receiving magnesium sulfate for severe preeclampsia has a respiratory rate of 10/min and absent
patellar reflexes. What should the nurse do first?
A. Increase the magnesium sulfate infusion
B. Stop the magnesium sulfate infusion
C. Encourage oral fluids
D. Place the client in a sitting position
Correct Answer: B. Stop the magnesium sulfate infusion
Rationale
Respiratory depression and absent deep-tendon reflexes are signs of magnesium toxicity. The infusion should
be stopped and the provider notified. Calcium gluconate may be prescribed as the antidote.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
A: Increasing magnesium would worsen toxicity. C: Oral fluids do not reverse magnesium toxicity. D: Positioning
alone does not treat the toxicity.
Question 8
Which finding in a pregnant client is most suggestive of gestational diabetes?
A. Persistent hypoglycemia
B. Elevated blood glucose during pregnancy
C. Decreased insulin resistance
D. Decreased fetal growth in every case
Correct Answer: B
Rationale
Gestational diabetes is glucose intolerance first recognized during pregnancy. Pregnancy-related hormonal
changes increase insulin resistance, which can result in elevated maternal blood glucose.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
Maternity Nursing Practice Exam 2026–2027 | Practice Resource • Page 4
NURSING
MATERNITY NURSING
PRACTICE EXAM 2026–2027
Pregnancy, Labor, Delivery & Postpartum Care
Maternity Nursing Practice Exam 2026–2027 | Practice Resource • Page 1
, Maternity Nursing Practice Exam 2026–2027
Pregnancy, Labor, Delivery & Postpartum Care
Practice examination focused on maternal nursing care across antepartum, intrapartum, postpartum, and
newborn periods.
Section 1: Antepartum Nursing Care
Question 1
A pregnant client at 10 weeks' gestation reports persistent nausea and vomiting and has been unable to keep
fluids down for 24 hours. Which assessment finding requires the nurse's priority attention?
A. Increased sensitivity to odors
B. Weight loss of 3 kg over 2 weeks
C. Occasional nausea in the morning
D. Food preferences that have changed
Correct Answer: B. Weight loss of 3 kg over 2 weeks
Rationale
Significant weight loss with persistent vomiting suggests hyperemesis gravidarum, which can cause
dehydration, electrolyte abnormalities, nutritional deficiencies, and ketonuria. The nurse should assess
hydration status, vital signs, urine output, laboratory values, and the ability to tolerate fluids.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
A: Increased sensitivity to odors is common during pregnancy and may contribute to nausea but is not the
priority concern. C: Mild morning nausea is common during early pregnancy. D: Changes in food preferences
can occur during pregnancy and are not by themselves evidence of a serious complication.
Question 2
The nurse is teaching a client who is 16 weeks pregnant about fetal development. Which statement by the client
indicates correct understanding?
A. "My fetus is beginning to develop all of its major organs now."
B. "My fetus can begin making sucking movements."
C. "The fetal lungs are fully mature at this stage."
D. "The fetus normally weighs about 3 kilograms at 16 weeks."
Correct Answer: B
Rationale
During the second trimester, the fetus develops increasingly coordinated movements, including sucking and
swallowing. Organ development begins much earlier, while maturation continues throughout pregnancy.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
A: Major organ development begins during the embryonic period, primarily in the first trimester. C: Fetal lungs
are not fully mature at 16 weeks. D: A fetus at 16 weeks weighs substantially less than 3 kg.
Question 3
A pregnant client asks why folic acid is recommended before conception and during early pregnancy. Which
response by the nurse is most appropriate?
A. "It prevents gestational diabetes."
Maternity Nursing Practice Exam 2026–2027 | Practice Resource • Page 2
, B. "It helps prevent neural tube defects."
C. "It prevents all congenital abnormalities."
D. "It guarantees that your baby will have a normal birth weight."
Correct Answer: B
Rationale
Adequate folic acid intake before conception and during early pregnancy reduces the risk of fetal neural tube
defects, including spina bifida and anencephaly.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
A: Folic acid does not specifically prevent gestational diabetes. C: No vitamin prevents all congenital
abnormalities. D: Folic acid does not guarantee a specific birth weight.
Question 4
A client at 28 weeks' gestation reports painless vaginal bleeding. Which condition should the nurse suspect
first?
A. Placenta previa
B. Abruptio placentae
C. Ectopic pregnancy
D. Ruptured uterus
Correct Answer: A. Placenta previa
Rationale
Painless, bright-red vaginal bleeding during the second half of pregnancy is a classic finding associated with
placenta previa, in which the placenta partially or completely covers the cervical opening.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
B: Abruptio placentae typically causes painful vaginal bleeding accompanied by uterine tenderness or rigidity.
C: Ectopic pregnancy usually occurs early in pregnancy rather than at 28 weeks. D: Uterine rupture is
uncommon and usually occurs during labor, particularly in clients with a uterine scar.
Question 5
A pregnant client with suspected placenta previa is admitted with vaginal bleeding. Which nursing action should
be avoided?
A. Monitoring maternal vital signs
B. Assessing fetal heart rate
C. Preparing the client for ultrasound
D. Performing a digital vaginal examination
Correct Answer: D
Rationale
A digital vaginal examination can disrupt the placenta and cause severe hemorrhage when placenta previa is
present or suspected. Fetal and maternal assessment should occur while avoiding procedures that may
provoke bleeding.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
A: Maternal vital signs help identify hemodynamic instability. B: Fetal heart-rate assessment is essential. C:
Ultrasound can help determine placental location and is commonly used in evaluation.
Maternity Nursing Practice Exam 2026–2027 | Practice Resource • Page 3
, Section 2: Pregnancy Complications
Question 6
A client at 34 weeks' gestation has a blood pressure of 164/112 mm Hg, severe headache, and blurred vision.
What is the nurse's priority action?
A. Encourage the client to ambulate
B. Place the client in a quiet environment and notify the provider
C. Offer a high-sodium snack
D. Reassure the client that these symptoms are expected
Correct Answer: B
Rationale
Severe hypertension accompanied by headache and visual disturbances indicates possible severe
preeclampsia and places the client at risk for seizures, stroke, placental abruption, and other complications.
Prompt assessment and intervention are required.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
A: Ambulation is not appropriate when severe preeclampsia is suspected. C: Increasing sodium intake is not an
appropriate treatment. D: These are potentially dangerous findings, not expected discomforts of pregnancy.
Question 7
A client receiving magnesium sulfate for severe preeclampsia has a respiratory rate of 10/min and absent
patellar reflexes. What should the nurse do first?
A. Increase the magnesium sulfate infusion
B. Stop the magnesium sulfate infusion
C. Encourage oral fluids
D. Place the client in a sitting position
Correct Answer: B. Stop the magnesium sulfate infusion
Rationale
Respiratory depression and absent deep-tendon reflexes are signs of magnesium toxicity. The infusion should
be stopped and the provider notified. Calcium gluconate may be prescribed as the antidote.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
A: Increasing magnesium would worsen toxicity. C: Oral fluids do not reverse magnesium toxicity. D: Positioning
alone does not treat the toxicity.
Question 8
Which finding in a pregnant client is most suggestive of gestational diabetes?
A. Persistent hypoglycemia
B. Elevated blood glucose during pregnancy
C. Decreased insulin resistance
D. Decreased fetal growth in every case
Correct Answer: B
Rationale
Gestational diabetes is glucose intolerance first recognized during pregnancy. Pregnancy-related hormonal
changes increase insulin resistance, which can result in elevated maternal blood glucose.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
Maternity Nursing Practice Exam 2026–2027 | Practice Resource • Page 4
