CNOR Exam Newest Actual Exam Test Bank Complete
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Preoperative Patient Assessment and Preparation
Q1: A patient with a known latex allergy is scheduled for a total knee arthroplasty. What is
the priority preoperative nursing action?
A. Document the allergy in the electronic health record only.
B. Schedule the surgery as the first case of the day. [CORRECT]
C. Request the surgeon to change the procedure to an outpatient one.
D. Apply a latex allergy band to the patient's chart after surgery.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Scheduling the patient as the first case of the day minimizes exposure to airborne
latex particles from previous surgeries, which is the standard of care for latex allergy
management.
Q2: During preoperative assessment, a patient reports drinking a cup of black coffee two
hours before arrival. How should the nurse proceed?
A. Cancel the surgery immediately due to NPO violation.
B. Proceed with the surgery, as clear liquids up to two hours prior are acceptable.
[CORRECT]
C. Delay the surgery for at least six more hours.
D. Administer an antiemetic prophylactically before induction.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Current guidelines permit clear liquids up to two hours before surgery, so this
does not violate NPO status or require cancellation.
Q3: What is the primary role of the perioperative nurse when witnessing a patient’s
informed consent signature?
A. To explain the surgical risks and benefits in detail.
B. To verify that the signature is voluntary and the patient appears competent. [CORRECT]
C. To ensure the surgeon has answered all patient questions.
D. To legally assume responsibility for the surgical outcome.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The nurse’s role is to witness the signature, confirming the patient is signing
voluntarily and appears competent, not to provide the detailed surgical explanation.
,Q4: A patient is prescribed a preoperative sedative. When is the safest time to administer
this medication?
A. In the holding area, after the surgical site has been marked and consent verified.
[CORRECT]
B. On the nursing unit, before the patient is transported to the OR.
C. Immediately after the induction of anesthesia.
D. Only if the patient explicitly requests it upon entering the OR.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Preoperative sedatives should be given after critical safety checks like site
marking and consent verification are complete, ensuring the patient can still participate in
the time-out.
Q5: Which action best demonstrates compliance with the National Patient Safety Goals for
patient identification?
A. Asking the patient, "Are you Mr. Smith?"
B. Checking the patient's wristband and asking them to state their full name and date of
birth. [CORRECT]
C. Relying on the room number to confirm patient identity.
D. Verifying identity with the family member in the waiting room.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Using two distinct patient identifiers, such as name and date of birth, directly
from the patient and their wristband, is the gold standard for safe identification.
Q6: A patient mentions their grandfather died from a high fever during surgery years ago.
What is the nurse’s best response?
A. Reassure the patient that modern anesthesia is completely safe.
B. Document the comment and notify the anesthesia provider of possible malignant
hyperthermia risk. [CORRECT]
C. Advise the patient to discuss this with their primary care doctor after surgery.
D. Cancel the case until a genetic test can be performed.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A family history of unexplained high fever or death during surgery is a red flag for
malignant hyperthermia, requiring immediate notification of the anesthesia team.
Q7: Prior to surgery, a patient is wearing a gold necklace and a removable partial denture.
What is the appropriate action?
A. Allow the patient to keep the jewelry if it is taped securely.
B. Remove all jewelry and prosthetics, documenting their safe storage. [CORRECT]
C. Let the patient keep the denture in until they are in the OR bed.
D. Ask the family to hold the items in the waiting room without documentation.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: All jewelry and removable prosthetics must be removed to prevent injury,
aspiration, or interference with surgical equipment, and their removal must be
documented.
Q8: Which preoperative teaching point is most critical for a patient undergoing abdominal
surgery?
, A. How to ambulate in the hallway on the day of surgery.
B. The importance of using the incentive spirometer and deep breathing postoperatively.
[CORRECT]
C. The expected duration of the surgical procedure.
D. The specific type of suture material the surgeon will use.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Teaching deep breathing and incentive spirometer use preoperatively is crucial
for preventing postoperative pulmonary complications like atelectasis, especially after
abdominal surgery.
Q9: A patient reports a severe rash when exposed to chlorhexidine. What should the nurse
do?
A. Proceed with a chlorhexidine prep, as rashes are a normal reaction.
B. Notify the surgical team to use an alternative skin prep, such as povidone-iodine.
[CORRECT]
C. Dilute the chlorhexidine solution with sterile water.
D. Apply the chlorhexidine only to the edges of the surgical site.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A history of chlorhexidine allergy requires the team to select an alternative, safe
skin preparation agent to prevent a severe allergic reaction or anaphylaxis.
Q10: When is the surgical site marking ideally performed?
A. By the circulating nurse after the patient is anesthetized.
B. By the surgeon, with the patient awake and participating, before entering the OR.
[CORRECT]
C. By the anesthesia provider during the induction process.
D. In the operating room after the time-out is completed.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The surgeon should mark the site while the patient is awake and can actively
confirm the correct location, aligning with Universal Protocol standards.
Q11: A patient with a permanent pacemaker is scheduled for surgery requiring
electrocautery. What is a key preoperative consideration?
A. The pacemaker should be removed prior to surgery.
B. The pacemaker may need to be interrogated and set to an asynchronous mode.
[CORRECT]
C. Electrocautery is strictly contraindicated for all pacemaker patients.
D. The grounding pad should be placed directly over the pacemaker.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Pacemakers may need to be adjusted to an asynchronous mode to prevent
electrocautery interference from inhibiting pacing, requiring preoperative cardiology
consultation.
Q12: A preoperative lab result shows a potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L. What is the nurse’s
priority action?
A. Proceed to the OR, as this is a normal finding.
B. Notify the surgeon and anesthesia provider of the abnormal value. [CORRECT]
Questions and Correct Detailed Answers Verified Answers
Already Graded A+ Brand New Version 2026 Aligned
Actual Exam 2026/2027 | Complete Exam-Style Questions
with Detailed Rationales | 100% Verified | Pass
Guaranteed – A+ Graded
Preoperative Patient Assessment and Preparation
Q1: A patient with a known latex allergy is scheduled for a total knee arthroplasty. What is
the priority preoperative nursing action?
A. Document the allergy in the electronic health record only.
B. Schedule the surgery as the first case of the day. [CORRECT]
C. Request the surgeon to change the procedure to an outpatient one.
D. Apply a latex allergy band to the patient's chart after surgery.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Scheduling the patient as the first case of the day minimizes exposure to airborne
latex particles from previous surgeries, which is the standard of care for latex allergy
management.
Q2: During preoperative assessment, a patient reports drinking a cup of black coffee two
hours before arrival. How should the nurse proceed?
A. Cancel the surgery immediately due to NPO violation.
B. Proceed with the surgery, as clear liquids up to two hours prior are acceptable.
[CORRECT]
C. Delay the surgery for at least six more hours.
D. Administer an antiemetic prophylactically before induction.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Current guidelines permit clear liquids up to two hours before surgery, so this
does not violate NPO status or require cancellation.
Q3: What is the primary role of the perioperative nurse when witnessing a patient’s
informed consent signature?
A. To explain the surgical risks and benefits in detail.
B. To verify that the signature is voluntary and the patient appears competent. [CORRECT]
C. To ensure the surgeon has answered all patient questions.
D. To legally assume responsibility for the surgical outcome.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The nurse’s role is to witness the signature, confirming the patient is signing
voluntarily and appears competent, not to provide the detailed surgical explanation.
,Q4: A patient is prescribed a preoperative sedative. When is the safest time to administer
this medication?
A. In the holding area, after the surgical site has been marked and consent verified.
[CORRECT]
B. On the nursing unit, before the patient is transported to the OR.
C. Immediately after the induction of anesthesia.
D. Only if the patient explicitly requests it upon entering the OR.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Preoperative sedatives should be given after critical safety checks like site
marking and consent verification are complete, ensuring the patient can still participate in
the time-out.
Q5: Which action best demonstrates compliance with the National Patient Safety Goals for
patient identification?
A. Asking the patient, "Are you Mr. Smith?"
B. Checking the patient's wristband and asking them to state their full name and date of
birth. [CORRECT]
C. Relying on the room number to confirm patient identity.
D. Verifying identity with the family member in the waiting room.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Using two distinct patient identifiers, such as name and date of birth, directly
from the patient and their wristband, is the gold standard for safe identification.
Q6: A patient mentions their grandfather died from a high fever during surgery years ago.
What is the nurse’s best response?
A. Reassure the patient that modern anesthesia is completely safe.
B. Document the comment and notify the anesthesia provider of possible malignant
hyperthermia risk. [CORRECT]
C. Advise the patient to discuss this with their primary care doctor after surgery.
D. Cancel the case until a genetic test can be performed.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A family history of unexplained high fever or death during surgery is a red flag for
malignant hyperthermia, requiring immediate notification of the anesthesia team.
Q7: Prior to surgery, a patient is wearing a gold necklace and a removable partial denture.
What is the appropriate action?
A. Allow the patient to keep the jewelry if it is taped securely.
B. Remove all jewelry and prosthetics, documenting their safe storage. [CORRECT]
C. Let the patient keep the denture in until they are in the OR bed.
D. Ask the family to hold the items in the waiting room without documentation.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: All jewelry and removable prosthetics must be removed to prevent injury,
aspiration, or interference with surgical equipment, and their removal must be
documented.
Q8: Which preoperative teaching point is most critical for a patient undergoing abdominal
surgery?
, A. How to ambulate in the hallway on the day of surgery.
B. The importance of using the incentive spirometer and deep breathing postoperatively.
[CORRECT]
C. The expected duration of the surgical procedure.
D. The specific type of suture material the surgeon will use.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Teaching deep breathing and incentive spirometer use preoperatively is crucial
for preventing postoperative pulmonary complications like atelectasis, especially after
abdominal surgery.
Q9: A patient reports a severe rash when exposed to chlorhexidine. What should the nurse
do?
A. Proceed with a chlorhexidine prep, as rashes are a normal reaction.
B. Notify the surgical team to use an alternative skin prep, such as povidone-iodine.
[CORRECT]
C. Dilute the chlorhexidine solution with sterile water.
D. Apply the chlorhexidine only to the edges of the surgical site.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A history of chlorhexidine allergy requires the team to select an alternative, safe
skin preparation agent to prevent a severe allergic reaction or anaphylaxis.
Q10: When is the surgical site marking ideally performed?
A. By the circulating nurse after the patient is anesthetized.
B. By the surgeon, with the patient awake and participating, before entering the OR.
[CORRECT]
C. By the anesthesia provider during the induction process.
D. In the operating room after the time-out is completed.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The surgeon should mark the site while the patient is awake and can actively
confirm the correct location, aligning with Universal Protocol standards.
Q11: A patient with a permanent pacemaker is scheduled for surgery requiring
electrocautery. What is a key preoperative consideration?
A. The pacemaker should be removed prior to surgery.
B. The pacemaker may need to be interrogated and set to an asynchronous mode.
[CORRECT]
C. Electrocautery is strictly contraindicated for all pacemaker patients.
D. The grounding pad should be placed directly over the pacemaker.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Pacemakers may need to be adjusted to an asynchronous mode to prevent
electrocautery interference from inhibiting pacing, requiring preoperative cardiology
consultation.
Q12: A preoperative lab result shows a potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L. What is the nurse’s
priority action?
A. Proceed to the OR, as this is a normal finding.
B. Notify the surgeon and anesthesia provider of the abnormal value. [CORRECT]
