,CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam 2026 | Comprehensive Test Bank |
Questions And Answers
I. GENERAL SECURITY CONCEPTS
Security Controls
Q1. An organization configures endpoint protection software to
block known malicious executables before they can run. Which
category of security control is being used?
A) Managerial
B) Technical
C) Operational
D) Physical
Correct Answer: B) Technical
Rationale: Technical controls use hardware, software, or system
configurations to enforce security. Endpoint protection that automatically
blocks malware is implemented through technology rather than policy or
human procedures.
Q2. Security personnel review surveillance footage after equipment
disappears from a data center. Which control type does the
surveillance system primarily provide in this scenario?
A) Corrective
B) Preventive
C) Directive
D) Detective
Correct Answer: D) Detective
Rationale: Detective controls identify or provide evidence of security events
after or while they occur. Recorded video can help determine what happened
and who was involved.
Q3. A company requires annual security awareness training for
every employee. Which category best describes this control?
A) Operational
B) Technical
C) Physical
D) Cryptographic
,Correct Answer: A) Operational
Rationale: Operational controls are implemented primarily through people
and organizational processes. Employee training is an administrative activity
carried out as part of normal operations.
Q4. A legacy server cannot support multifactor authentication, so
administrators restrict access to it through a hardened jump server.
What type of control is the jump server serving in this situation?
A) Detective
B) Directive
C) Compensating
D) Corrective
Correct Answer: C) Compensating
Rationale: A compensating control provides an alternative safeguard when
the preferred control cannot be implemented. The jump server reduces
access risk when MFA cannot be installed directly on the legacy system.
Q5. Which control is primarily intended to discourage an attacker
from attempting unauthorized physical entry?
A) Backup generator
B) Warning signs and visible security guards
C) File integrity monitoring
D) Data restoration procedures
Correct Answer: B) Warning signs and visible security guards
Rationale: Deterrent controls discourage unwanted behavior by increasing
the perceived likelihood or consequences of detection. Visible guards and
warning signs are common deterrents.
Fundamental Security Concepts
Q6. A file's hash is checked before and after transmission to verify
that its contents were not altered. Which security principle is being
validated?
A) Integrity
B) Availability
C) Confidentiality
D) Non-repudiation
, Correct Answer: A) Integrity
Rationale: Integrity ensures information remains accurate and unchanged
except through authorized modification. Comparing cryptographic hashes
can reveal whether data was altered.
Q7. An organization maintains redundant internet links so
customers can continue using its online services if one provider
fails. Which element of the CIA triad is primarily supported?
A) Confidentiality
B) Integrity
C) Non-repudiation
D) Availability
Correct Answer: D) Availability
Rationale: Availability ensures authorized users can access systems and
information when needed. Redundant connectivity reduces downtime caused
by a single provider failure.
Q8. An employee successfully enters a username, password, and
security key. The system then checks whether the employee can
access the payroll database. Which AAA function is occurring during
the second step?
A) Accounting
B) Authentication
C) Authorization
D) Attestation
Correct Answer: C) Authorization
Rationale: Authentication establishes identity. Authorization determines
what an authenticated identity is allowed to access or perform.
Q9. An organization compares its current cybersecurity capabilities
with a desired future state and identifies missing controls. What
activity is being performed?
A) Penetration testing
B) Gap analysis
C) Tokenization
D) Load balancing
Correct Answer: B) Gap analysis
Questions And Answers
I. GENERAL SECURITY CONCEPTS
Security Controls
Q1. An organization configures endpoint protection software to
block known malicious executables before they can run. Which
category of security control is being used?
A) Managerial
B) Technical
C) Operational
D) Physical
Correct Answer: B) Technical
Rationale: Technical controls use hardware, software, or system
configurations to enforce security. Endpoint protection that automatically
blocks malware is implemented through technology rather than policy or
human procedures.
Q2. Security personnel review surveillance footage after equipment
disappears from a data center. Which control type does the
surveillance system primarily provide in this scenario?
A) Corrective
B) Preventive
C) Directive
D) Detective
Correct Answer: D) Detective
Rationale: Detective controls identify or provide evidence of security events
after or while they occur. Recorded video can help determine what happened
and who was involved.
Q3. A company requires annual security awareness training for
every employee. Which category best describes this control?
A) Operational
B) Technical
C) Physical
D) Cryptographic
,Correct Answer: A) Operational
Rationale: Operational controls are implemented primarily through people
and organizational processes. Employee training is an administrative activity
carried out as part of normal operations.
Q4. A legacy server cannot support multifactor authentication, so
administrators restrict access to it through a hardened jump server.
What type of control is the jump server serving in this situation?
A) Detective
B) Directive
C) Compensating
D) Corrective
Correct Answer: C) Compensating
Rationale: A compensating control provides an alternative safeguard when
the preferred control cannot be implemented. The jump server reduces
access risk when MFA cannot be installed directly on the legacy system.
Q5. Which control is primarily intended to discourage an attacker
from attempting unauthorized physical entry?
A) Backup generator
B) Warning signs and visible security guards
C) File integrity monitoring
D) Data restoration procedures
Correct Answer: B) Warning signs and visible security guards
Rationale: Deterrent controls discourage unwanted behavior by increasing
the perceived likelihood or consequences of detection. Visible guards and
warning signs are common deterrents.
Fundamental Security Concepts
Q6. A file's hash is checked before and after transmission to verify
that its contents were not altered. Which security principle is being
validated?
A) Integrity
B) Availability
C) Confidentiality
D) Non-repudiation
, Correct Answer: A) Integrity
Rationale: Integrity ensures information remains accurate and unchanged
except through authorized modification. Comparing cryptographic hashes
can reveal whether data was altered.
Q7. An organization maintains redundant internet links so
customers can continue using its online services if one provider
fails. Which element of the CIA triad is primarily supported?
A) Confidentiality
B) Integrity
C) Non-repudiation
D) Availability
Correct Answer: D) Availability
Rationale: Availability ensures authorized users can access systems and
information when needed. Redundant connectivity reduces downtime caused
by a single provider failure.
Q8. An employee successfully enters a username, password, and
security key. The system then checks whether the employee can
access the payroll database. Which AAA function is occurring during
the second step?
A) Accounting
B) Authentication
C) Authorization
D) Attestation
Correct Answer: C) Authorization
Rationale: Authentication establishes identity. Authorization determines
what an authenticated identity is allowed to access or perform.
Q9. An organization compares its current cybersecurity capabilities
with a desired future state and identifies missing controls. What
activity is being performed?
A) Penetration testing
B) Gap analysis
C) Tokenization
D) Load balancing
Correct Answer: B) Gap analysis
