UNCW NSG 415 (NSG415): Research in Nursing Quizzes 1–6 Bundle | Module Questions & Answers | 2026.

UNCW NSG 415 / NSG415 Research in Nursing | All Module Quizzes 1–6 Questions & Answers | 2026 ## Module 1 Quiz Questions 2026 **1. A staff nurse hears a research participant ask to withdraw, but the researcher continues the study procedures. What should the nurse do?** A. Confront the researcher with concerns. B. Secretly record the researcher’s interaction with a potential participant. C. Document suspicions in the patient’s medical record. D. Contact the hospital’s institutional review board. **2. Which statement best defines research?** A. Information based on personal experience or tradition. B. Trying several approaches and choosing the one that usually works. C. Planned, systematic activity that generates knowledge or solutions to questions and problems. D. Thinking critically about healthcare problems to identify possible solutions. **3. Which report encouraged university-based nursing education in the 1920s?** A. Goldmark Report. B. Belmont Report. C. ANA Code of Ethics. D. Western Interstate Commission for Higher Education. **4. Which four elements are central to the diffusion model used to incorporate evidence-based practice?** A. Innovation, communication, cooperation, and compliance. B. Innovation, cooperation, communication, and compliance. C. Innovation, cooperation, compliance, and a social system. D. Innovation, communication, time, and a social system. **5. Which study topic best fits the quiz’s focus on healthcare delivery changes associated with the Affordable Care Act?** A. The impact of nationalized care on the US population. B. The impact of universal care on the US population. C. The relationship between shorter hospital stays and readmission. D. The impact of longer hospital stays on patient satisfaction. **6. True or false: Qualitative and quantitative research are essentially the same because both use numerical statistics to determine relationships.** A. True. B. False. **7. Which strategy helps a healthcare facility overcome barriers to adopting evidence-based practice?** A. Use a team approach and credible research when considering policy changes. B. Avoid policy changes to maintain consistency. C. Have staff work independently to make all policy changes. D. Use autocratic leadership to determine every policy. **8. What is required for an APA direct quotation of fewer than 40 words from a paginated source?** A. Quotation marks, author, and publication year. B. The author’s name and quotation marks. C. Author, publication year, and page number only. D. Quotation marks, author, publication year, and page number. **9. A researcher plans interviews about sleep patterns with people experiencing homelessness. Which type of IRB review is required?** A. Full board review. B. Exempt determination. C. Expanded review. D. Expedited review. **10. What is the best way for a staff nurse to further develop knowledge of evidence-based practice?** A. Follow the supervisor’s example. B. Regularly read evidence relevant to the nurse’s area of practice. C. Watch what other nurses do. D. Act as a role model for less experienced staff. **11. What is the primary purpose of nursing research?** A. To address nursing theories and interventions without extending into practice. B. To generate, validate, or refine knowledge that directly or indirectly influences nursing practice. C. To generate knowledge only for medical research. D. To guide only medical and psychological investigations. **12. Which two obligations express beneficence in the Belmont Report?** A. Do no harm and maximize possible benefits. B. Do no harm and treat people as autonomous. C. Treat people as autonomous and obtain informed consent. D. Treat people as autonomous and maximize possible benefits. **13. How can evidence-based practice be integrated most effectively into an electronic medical record?** A. Provide evidence-based recommendations linked to relevant diagnoses and interventions. B. Require each nurse to independently research and enter all recommendations. C. Automatically insert recommendations only into discharge documentation. D. Rely only on the provider to identify and document best practice. **14. Which statement best distinguishes research utilization from evidence-based practice?** A. Research utilization applies research findings; EBP integrates the best available evidence with clinical expertise and patient preferences. B. Research utilization evaluates secondary studies, whereas EBP only creates new primary data. C. Research utilization applies findings to care, whereas EBP is limited to medication selection. D. Research utilization reviews publications, whereas EBP relies only on a provider’s personal perception. **15. A regional hospital sets performance criteria to promote best practices at nurses’ points of care. Which level of EBP collaboration does this represent?** A. National. B. Organizational. C. Regional. D. International. **16. Why should a nurse use a systematic approach to research?** A. It ensures only deductive reasoning is used. B. It automatically guarantees ethical conduct. C. It is more likely to produce findings that can be used with confidence. D. It guarantees results consistent with the hypothesis. **17. What was the central focus of the Human Genome Project?** A. Sequencing and mapping human genes. B. Studying only known genetic diseases. C. Finding cures for all known genetic diseases. D. Identifying only the causes of known genetic diseases. **18. Which activities align with the Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality’s purpose? Select all that apply.** A. Support effective clinical prevention and chronic disease care. B. Improve the delivery and coordination of primary care. C. Improve healthcare quality, safety, and effectiveness. D. Set healthcare professionals’ educational requirements. **19. What must an APA citation include when paraphrasing a source?** A. Only the page number. B. Only the author’s name. C. Only the publication year. D. The author’s name and publication year. **20. Which research approach analyzes words and the meanings people give to their experiences?** A. Quantitative research. B. Qualitative research. **21. A nurse reads an article discussing several studies and considers how to use the findings in clinical practice. Which action specifically demonstrates research utilization?** A. Using personal experience to increase confidence. B. Considering the application of research findings to practice. C. Recognizing the importance of clinical decision-making. D. Synthesizing multiple studies without considering their application. **22. Which strategy most directly addresses lack of time as a barrier to adopting EBP?** A. Ask a librarian how to find EBP articles. B. Attend an EBP course. C. Spend 15 minutes each day considering why research matters. D. Set aside 15 minutes each day to read evidence about a clinical problem. **23. During a research interview about grief and coping, a participant becomes upset about a son’s death from an overdose and says he does not want to discuss it. What should the nurse do?** A. Advocate for the participant by stopping further questioning. B. Express sympathy but explain that answering will help others. C. Continue because nurses have a duty to advance knowledge. D. Continue because the potential benefit to others outweighs the participant’s wishes. **24. Match each research ethics example with the corresponding misconduct.** A. Nazi medical experiments. B. Tuskegee syphilis study. C. The “Red Wine Researcher” case. D. Willowbrook studies. **25. Which mechanism protects human research participants at the organizational level?** A. Institutional review board. B. Evidence-based clinical guidelines. C. Institutional research committee. D. Integrative literature reviews. ## Module 2 Quiz Questions 2026 **1. Which item is a primary source?** A. A nursing textbook about EBP. B. A biography of Florence Nightingale. C. An article reporting the results of an original online survey. D. A systematic review. **2. What type of hypothesis states, “More hours of sleep are positively associated with improved mood”?** A. Null. B. Causal. C. Directional. D. Nondirectional. **3. Which research component is illustrated by this statement: “Nurse educators have had difficulty transitioning to fully online teaching during the COVID-19 pandemic”?** A. Research question. B. Research finding. C. Research hypothesis. D. Problem statement. **4. What is the most important reason for nurses to develop literature-review skills and knowledge about a topic?** A. To identify areas requiring further research. B. To support informed, evidence-based decisions. C. To narrow a research question. D. To maintain academic writing skills. **5. Which strategy is most important when writing a relevant literature review?** A. Use direct quotations for most of the review. B. Include as many secondary sources as possible. C. Analyze the strengths and weaknesses of the articles. D. Limit the review to three to five articles regardless of the topic. **6. “The purpose of this study is to determine whether a fall-prevention bundle prevents falls” is an example of what?** A. Research hypothesis. B. Purpose statement. C. Research question. D. Problem statement. **7. A hypothesis proposes negative associations among stress, depression, alcohol use, grade point average, and attendance in college students. Which listed term describes it?** A. Complex. B. Null. C. Nondirectional. D. Causal. **8. What is a defining characteristic of a refereed journal?** A. It publishes only primary research. B. Authors compete to publish in it. C. Its articles concern a specific field. D. Independent expert reviewers critique submitted manuscripts before publication. **9. Which item is a secondary source?** A. A randomized controlled trial. B. A cross-sectional study. C. An autobiography. D. A systematic review. **10. Which set of resources is the best starting point for a literature review?** A. Textbooks, government and university databases, and general medical websites. B. General search engines, local journal archives, and a supervisor’s recommendations. C. Health-science indexes, government and university databases, and academic or hospital library resources. D. Articles by famous researchers, publication indexes, and general search engines. **11. In nursing theory, what are concepts?** A. Ideas that outline the nursing scope of practice. B. Step-by-step clinical instructions. C. Statements defining practice expectations. D. Words or phrases expressing a distinct idea relevant to a theory. **12. What broad benefit can result from research that addresses a gap in nursing knowledge?** A. Promoting health while increasing hospital length of stay. B. Improving clinical outcomes and promoting health across the lifespan. C. Improving clinical outcomes and decreasing disease incidence. D. Decreasing hospital length of stay and disease incidence. **13. Using theory in practice provides a ______ for nursing assessment and care.** A. Framework. B. Context. C. Outline. D. Environment. **14. Which statement best defines a keyword used in a literature search?** A. A meaningful word from a title or document used to identify relevant content. B. A controlled thesaurus term that automatically finds all synonyms. C. A method used only when the title and authors are already known. D. An instruction that always searches every word in the full text of every article. **15. Which observation most clearly identifies a clinical problem suitable for nursing research?** A. More serious patient falls and related complications appear to occur at night. B. More patients are admitted between midnight and 4 a.m. C. Night-shift nurses would prefer daytime work. D. One patient reports that evening-shift nurses are inattentive. **16. What is another common term for an electronic literature index?** A. Data source. B. Journal bank. C. Database. D. Data bank. **17. Which research approach generally uses research questions rather than predictive hypotheses?** A. Correlational research. B. Experimental research. C. Qualitative research. **18. What does PICOT represent?** A. Population or problem, intervention, comparison, outcome, and time. B. Population, intervention, comparison, overarching practice alignment, and time. C. Population, intervention, comparison, outcome, and total participants. D. Disease, intervention, comparison, outcome, and total participants. **19. A study compares warm and cold applications for resolving IV infiltration in hospitalized older postoperative patients. What is the independent variable?** A. The older postoperative patients. B. Warm versus cold applications. C. Resolution of the infiltration. D. The presence of IV infiltration. **20. Nursing ______ provide organized explanations and propositions that guide practice.** A. Theories. B. Concepts. C. Models. D. Perceptions. **21. What quality-control process commonly distinguishes original research published in peer-reviewed scholarly journals from primary accounts in general periodicals?** A. Expert peer review. B. Containing original information. C. Being written only by experts. D. Being restricted to academic use. **22. Researchers hypothesize that women attending exercise programs will have lower PHQ-9 depression scores than women who do not attend. Which listed factor could potentially confound this relationship?** A. The depression score. B. A score on another depression scale. C. Body weight. D. Being a woman. **23. What makes a study nursing research?** A. It is conducted by a nurse. B. It concerns any aspect of patient care. C. It addresses nursing practice or nursing-relevant knowledge. D. It uses only nursing interventions. **24. What is an area of concern involving a gap in knowledge that requires investigation to improve practice?** A. Purpose theory. B. Research hypothesis. C. Purpose statement. D. Research problem. **25. Which database is a major nursing and allied-health literature index?** A. MEDLINE. B. PsycINFO. C. World Wide Web. D. CINAHL. ## Module 3 Quiz Questions 2026 **1. Using the five-level JHNEBP Evidence Level Guide specified in this quiz, classify the following article: “‘Hope as a lighthouse’: A meta-synthesis on hope and hoping in different nursing contexts.”** A. Level I. B. Level II. C. Level III. D. Level IV. E. Level V. **2. Using the five-level JHNEBP Evidence Level Guide specified in this quiz, classify the following article: “Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus in solid organ transplantation—Guidelines from the American Society of Transplantation Infectious Diseases Community of Practice.”** A. Level I. B. Level II. C. Level III. D. Level IV. E. Level V. **3. Using the five-level JHNEBP Evidence Level Guide specified in this quiz, classify the following article: “Understanding Differing Viewpoints on Preadmission Bathing and Cleansing: Soap vs CHG.”** A. Level I. B. Level II. C. Level III. D. Level IV. E. Level V. **4. Using the five-level JHNEBP Evidence Level Guide specified in this quiz, classify the following article: “Sustaining the Quality of Life for University Employees with Obesity Using Mindfulness Activities and Work Engagement: A Quasi-Experimental Design.”** A. Level I. B. Level II. C. Level III. D. Level IV. E. Level V. **5. Using the five-level JHNEBP Evidence Level Guide specified in this quiz, classify the following article: “Impact of chlorhexidine-impregnated washcloths on reducing incidence of vancomycin-resistant enterococci colonization in hematology-oncology patients.”** A. Level I. B. Level II. C. Level III. D. Level IV. E. Level V. **6. Using the five-level JHNEBP Evidence Level Guide specified in this quiz, classify the following article: “Implementing daily chlorhexidine gluconate (CHG) bathing in VA settings: The human factors engineering to prevent resistant organisms (HERO) project.”** A. Level I. B. Level II. C. Level III. D. Level IV. E. Level V. **7. Using the five-level JHNEBP Evidence Level Guide specified in this quiz, classify the following article: “Implementation of chlorhexidine gluconate bathing to reduce HAIs.”** A. Level I. B. Level II. C. Level III. D. Level IV. E. Level V. **8. Using the five-level JHNEBP Evidence Level Guide specified in this quiz, classify the following article: “Promoting Mask Use on TikTok: Descriptive, Cross-sectional Study.”** A. Level I. B. Level II. C. Level III. D. Level IV. E. Level V. **9. Using the five-level JHNEBP Evidence Level Guide specified in this quiz, classify the following article: “Chlorhexidine Gluconate Bathing in Children With Cancer or Those Undergoing Hematopoietic Stem Cell Transplantation: A Double-Blinded Randomized Controlled Trial From the Children’s Oncology Group.”** A. Level I. B. Level II. C. Level III. D. Level IV. E. Level V. **10. Using the five-level JHNEBP Evidence Level Guide specified in this quiz, classify the following article: “The impact of chlorhexidine bathing on hospital-acquired bloodstream infections: A systematic review and meta-analysis.”** A. Level I. B. Level II. C. Level III. D. Level IV. E. Level V. ## Module 4 Quiz Questions 2026 **1. How can an investigator make a study sample more homogeneous?** A. Collect all data at the same time of day. B. Have one research assistant collect all data. C. Randomly assign participants to experimental and control groups. D. Set inclusion and exclusion criteria that limit relevant extraneous variation. **2. At a long-term care facility, two data collectors independently assess 56 pressure-ulcer cases among 40 participants on the same day. They give identical scores in 54 cases, with a reported correlation of 0.96. What is the best interpretation?** A. The collectors should have assessed each case together to establish interrater reliability. B. Interrater reliability is low. C. Interrater reliability is high. D. The data-collection method is necessarily inappropriate. **3. A new instrument for measuring peripheral neuropathy has strong evidence of validity. What does this mean?** A. It is sensitive but not specific. B. It produces consistent results. C. It measures the intended peripheral-neuropathy construct accurately. D. Interrater reliability no longer needs evaluation. **4. Experts review an instrument’s items for clarity and coverage of the intended domain. What type of validity is being assessed?** A. Content validity. B. Concurrent validity. C. Construct validity. D. Criterion-related validity. **5. A hope instrument is administered twice, five days apart, and the test-retest correlation is 0.28. What is the best interpretation?** A. Low stability and low test-retest reliability. B. High stability but low reliability. C. Low stability but high reliability. D. High stability and high reliability. **6. What is the defining feature of probability sampling?** A. Participants select themselves. B. The sample always mirrors every population proportion. C. The researcher handpicks participants. D. Selection uses a random process with known selection probabilities. **7. What is a common purpose of an a priori power analysis?** A. Randomly assign participants. B. Measure sample representativeness. C. Estimate the required sample size. D. Create sampling strata. **8. When is a qualitative design particularly appropriate?** A. When the researcher lacks scientific problem-solving experience. B. When the goal is to understand an experience from the perspective of those living it. C. Whenever the question is clinical. D. Whenever data-collection time is limited. **9. Which question most clearly fits phenomenological research?** A. How effective is virtual reality in reducing chemotherapy-related distress in adolescents? B. What factors influence older adults to seek advice after a positive cancer screening? C. What is the relationship between social support and postpartum depression? D. What is the lived experience of families whose relatives receive hospice care? **10. How is sample size commonly determined in a grounded-theory study?** A. Include everyone available within the study period. B. Use only a power analysis from a pilot study. C. Include everyone available at one location. D. Continue theoretically directed sampling until new data no longer add relevant categories or insights. **11. Identify the response format: “Nurses should wear white uniforms.” Responses are strongly agree, agree, disagree, and strongly disagree.** A. Physiological scale. B. Dichotomous scale. C. Likert-type scale. D. Visual analog scale. **12. Which measurement level ranks values without assuming equal distances between them?** A. Ordinal. B. Interval. C. Ratio. D. Nominal. **13. A researcher administers an established quality-of-life measure and a new quality-of-life measure at the same time, using the established measure as the criterion. Which type of validity is assessed?** A. Concurrent validity. B. Divergent testing. C. Predictive validity. D. Expert validity. **14. In the course’s simplified “Rule of 30,” what sample size is suggested?** A. Thirty participants for each variable. B. Thirty extra participants to compensate for attrition. C. Thirty participants in each study group. D. Thirty participants for every ten questionnaire items. **15. What term describes the population a researcher can reasonably access?** A. Target population. B. Sample. C. Accessible population. D. Population. **16. Which statement is false in the usual introductory distinction between reliability and validity?** A. An instrument can be reliable without being valid. B. An instrument with inadequate reliability can nevertheless be assumed to provide valid measurement. C. A reliable instrument provides consistent measurements under comparable conditions. D. Reliability may be summarized using an appropriate coefficient. **17. What is most important for obtaining accurate physiological measurements?** A. Use a detailed, standardized measurement protocol. B. Purchase new equipment. C. Require one person to obtain every measurement. D. Obtain consent without standardizing the measurement process. **18. Which research practice is ethical?** A. Have a person who does not understand English sign an English consent form without language assistance. B. Promise healthcare services in a way that improperly pressures enrollment. C. Provide reasonable reimbursement for travel to the data-collection site. D. Store identified raw data together with signed consent forms without confidentiality safeguards. **19. Which listed approach is often associated with descriptive phenomenology?** A. Relying primarily on participant observation. B. Limiting early engagement with substantive literature to reduce preconceptions. C. Using larger samples than other qualitative approaches. D. Using purposive sampling as a method unique to phenomenology. **20. When planning a quantitative study of postpartum habits, which sampling consideration is most appropriate?** A. Including only postpartum women is automatically biased. B. Every mother must consent for her infant even if the infant is not a research participant. C. Choose a sample size solely to qualify for publication. D. Seek an adequately sized sample that represents the target population. **21. Which broad sampling category does not require random selection?** A. Probability sampling. B. Nonprobability sampling. C. Quota sampling. D. Convenience sampling. **22. A nurse is preparing a data-collection plan for a study of tobacco use among preteen girls. Which task belongs most directly in that plan?** A. Organize literature supporting the topic. B. Develop a data-collection timeline and budget. C. Develop the overall theoretical framework and research questions. D. Arrange participants by a vaguely defined “data objective.” **23. Before using a newly developed survey, which type of study most specifically evaluates its measurement properties, including reliability and validity?** A. A quantitative study in general. B. A qualitative study. C. A methodological study in general. D. A psychometric study. **24. How are the target and accessible populations related?** A. The target population includes the accessible population. B. They are always entirely different populations. C. They are always identical. D. The accessible population necessarily includes the full target population. **25. A researcher has interviewed 15 people. The last five interviews confirm earlier findings without adding new relevant information. What is the most reasonable conclusion?** A. Continue until there are no people left to interview. B. Discard the last five interviews because the data are overloaded. C. Replace the questions because the data are stale. D. Data saturation may have been reached, permitting data collection to end if the study’s analytic requirements are met. ## Module 5 Quiz Questions 2026 **1. How can an investigator make a study sample more homogeneous?** A. Have one research assistant collect all data. B. Collect all data at the same time of day. C. Randomly assign participants to experimental and control groups. D. Set inclusion and exclusion criteria that limit relevant extraneous variation. **2. At a large teaching hospital, two data collectors independently assess 56 pressure-ulcer cases among 40 participants on the same day. They give identical scores in 54 cases, with a reported correlation of 0.96. What is the best interpretation?** A. Interrater reliability is low. B. The collectors should have assessed each case together to establish interrater reliability. C. The data-collection method is necessarily inappropriate. D. Interrater reliability is high. **3. A new instrument for measuring blood pressure has strong evidence of validity. What does this mean?** A. Interrater reliability no longer needs evaluation. B. It is sensitive but not specific. C. It produces consistent results. D. It accurately measures blood pressure. **4. Experts review an instrument’s items for clarity and coverage of the intended domain. What type of validity is being assessed?** A. Criterion-related validity. B. Construct validity. C. Content validity. D. Concurrent validity. **5. A hope instrument is administered twice, seven days apart, and the test-retest correlation is 0.35. What is the best interpretation?** A. Low stability and low test-retest reliability. B. High stability but low reliability. C. Low stability but high reliability. D. High stability and high reliability. **6. What is the defining feature of probability sampling?** A. The researcher handpicks participants. B. Selection uses a random process with known selection probabilities. C. Participants select themselves. D. The sample always mirrors every population proportion. **7. What is a common purpose of an a priori power analysis?** A. Estimate the required sample size. B. Randomly assign participants. C. Create sampling strata. D. Measure sample representativeness. **8. When is a qualitative design particularly appropriate?** A. Whenever the question is clinical. B. When the researcher lacks scientific problem-solving experience. C. Whenever data-collection time is limited. D. When the goal is to understand an experience from the perspective of those living it. **9. Which question most clearly fits phenomenological research?** A. What factors influence older adults to seek advice after a positive cancer screening? B. How effective is virtual reality in reducing chemotherapy-related distress in adolescents? C. What is the lived experience of families whose relatives receive hospice care? D. What is the relationship between social support and postpartum depression? **10. How is sample size commonly determined in a grounded-theory study?** A. Include everyone available within the study period. B. Continue theoretically directed sampling until new data no longer add relevant categories or insights. C. Include everyone available at one location. D. Use only a power analysis from a pilot study. **11. Identify the response format: “Nurse practitioners should have independent practice rights.” Responses are strongly agree, agree, disagree, and strongly disagree.** A. Physiological scale. B. Visual analog scale. C. Likert-type scale. D. Dichotomous scale. **12. Which measurement level ranks values without assuming equal distances between them?** A. Ratio. B. Interval. C. Ordinal. D. Nominal. **13. A researcher administers an established quality-of-life measure and a new quality-of-life measure at the same time, using the established measure as the criterion. Which type of validity is assessed?** A. Predictive validity. B. Divergent testing. C. Expert validity. D. Concurrent validity. **14. In the course’s simplified “Rule of 30,” what sample size is suggested?** A. Thirty participants in each study group. B. Thirty participants for every ten questionnaire items. C. Thirty participants for each variable. D. Thirty extra participants to compensate for attrition. **15. What term describes the population a researcher can reasonably access?** A. Population. B. Accessible population. C. Sample. D. Target population. **16. Which statement is false in the usual introductory distinction between reliability and validity?** A. An instrument can be reliable without being valid. B. A reliable instrument provides consistent measurements under comparable conditions. C. Reliability may be summarized using an appropriate coefficient. D. An instrument with inadequate reliability can nevertheless be assumed to provide valid measurement. **17. What is most important for obtaining accurate physiological measurements?** A. Purchase new equipment. B. Obtain consent without standardizing the measurement process. C. Require one person to obtain every measurement. D. Use a detailed, standardized measurement protocol. **18. Which research practice is ethical?** A. Promise healthcare services in a way that improperly pressures enrollment. B. Store identified raw data together with signed consent forms without confidentiality safeguards. C. Have a person who does not understand English sign an English consent form without language assistance. D. Provide reasonable reimbursement for travel to the data-collection site. **19. Which listed approach is often associated with descriptive phenomenology?** A. Relying primarily on participant observation. B. Using larger samples than other qualitative approaches. C. Limiting early engagement with substantive literature to reduce preconceptions. D. Using purposive sampling as a method unique to phenomenology. **20. When planning a quantitative study of new mothers’ breastfeeding habits, which sampling consideration is most appropriate?** A. Including only postpartum women is automatically biased. B. Choose a sample size solely to qualify for publication. C. Seek an adequately sized sample that represents the target population. D. Every mother must consent for her infant even if the infant is not a research participant. **21. Which broad sampling category does not require random selection?** A. Nonprobability sampling. B. Probability sampling. C. Quota sampling. D. Convenience sampling. **22. A nurse is preparing a data-collection plan for a study of vaping among preteen girls. Which task belongs most directly in that plan?** A. Arrange participants by a vaguely defined “data objective.” B. Develop the overall theoretical framework and research questions. C. Develop a data-collection timeline and budget. D. Organize literature supporting the topic. **23. Before using a newly developed survey, which type of study most specifically evaluates its measurement properties, including reliability and validity?** A. A quantitative study in general. B. A psychometric study. C. A methodological study in general. D. A qualitative study. **24. How are the target and accessible populations related?** A. The accessible population necessarily includes the full target population. B. They are always identical. C. They are always entirely different populations. D. The target population includes the accessible population. **25. A researcher has interviewed 11 people. The last five interviews confirm earlier findings without adding new relevant information. What is the most reasonable conclusion?** A. Replace the questions because the data are stale. B. Discard the last five interviews because the data are overloaded. C. Data saturation may have been reached, permitting data collection to end if the study’s analytic requirements are met. D. Continue until there are no people left to interview. ## Module 6 Quiz Questions 2026 **1. Why are descriptive statistics valuable to a nurse researcher?** A. They summarize important features of a dataset. B. They establish generalizability by themselves. C. They determine which data are reliable. D. They merely calculate data without summarizing them. **2. Which statement is an example of descriptive data reported in a journal?** A. The significance threshold was p 0.05. B. The F statistic was 2.456. C. Fifty-four percent of participants were female. D. The reliability coefficient was 0.92. **3. Reporting the frequency of nurses who hold a DNP degree is an example of which type of statistics?** A. Nonparametric statistics. B. Descriptive statistics. C. Inferential statistics. D. Mathematical statistics. **4. Which measure identifies the examination score that occurs most frequently?** A. Median. B. Mean. C. Percentile. D. Mode. **5. What does a correlation coefficient describe?** A. The most frequently occurring score. B. The range containing the middle 50% of scores. C. The variability of scores around their mean. D. The direction and strength of a relationship between variables. **6. A study finds that nurses with higher spirituality scores report greater willingness to care for patients with COVID-19. What type of correlation is this?** A. No correlation. B. Perfect correlation. C. Positive correlation. D. Negative correlation. **7. Calculate the mean of these ten scores: 20, 14, 34, 8, 11, 36, 24, 1, 36, and 6.** A. 14. B. 19. C. 30. D. 18. **8. A study of women with metastatic stomach cancer reports r = 0.50 and p = 0.03 for symptom distress and mood scores. Using the quiz’s conventional interpretation, what is the magnitude of the correlation?** A. Strong. B. Weak. C. Moderate. **9. Which parametric test is commonly used to compare mean mental-status scores between two independent groups: patients with Alzheimer’s disease and patients with confusion related to low sodium?** A. Chi-square. B. Independent-samples t-test. C. Analysis of variance. D. Pearson correlation. **10. Nonparametric tests are commonly appropriate for which measurement levels?** A. Nominal and ordinal. B. Interval and ratio only. C. Ordinal and interval only. D. Ratio and nominal only. **11. A study predicts a statistically significant positive association between reported sleep adequacy and driving performance. It finds r = 0.31 and p = 0.21. At alpha = 0.05, which conclusion is appropriate?** A. The hypothesis of a statistically significant positive relationship is not supported. B. The hypothesis is supported. C. The relationship is strong. D. The results prove that no relationship exists. **12. A study reports t = -2.944 and p = 0.10, with a significance threshold of 0.05. Based on the reported p value, is the result statistically significant?** A. Yes. B. No. **13. What is a Type I error?** A. Failing to reject a false null hypothesis. B. Accepting a research hypothesis as certainly true. C. Rejecting a research hypothesis that is actually true. D. Rejecting a null hypothesis that is actually true. **14. Two independent groups are compared on nominal variables such as gender category and smoking status. Which broad class of statistical procedures is appropriate?** A. Nonparametric procedures. B. Parametric procedures requiring continuous normally distributed outcomes. **15. Researchers compare mean satisfaction scores among three independent groups attending HURST, HESI, or Kaplan NCLEX review courses. Which test is most appropriate if its assumptions are met?** A. t-test. B. Pearson correlation. C. Mann-Whitney U. D. One-way analysis of variance. **16. A researcher reports a test using the symbol χ² when comparing crying outcomes after a heel stick under two comfort interventions. Which test does the symbol represent?** A. Pearson correlation. B. Mann-Whitney U. C. Chi-square. D. t-test. **17. A researcher prespecifies a significance level of alpha = 0.05. What does this mean?** A. The testing procedure allows a 5% long-run Type I error rate when the null hypothesis is true and the test assumptions hold. B. The significance level is automatically unacceptable. C. The strength and direction of a correlation are predetermined. D. The test has a 95% Type I error rate. **18. Approximately what percentage of values in a normal distribution lie within three standard deviations of the mean?** A. 99.7%. B. 95.5%. C. 68.2%. D. 100%. **19. True or false: A Type II error is always more serious than a Type I error.** A. True. B. False. **20. A researcher fails to detect a real relationship and does not reject the null hypothesis. Which listed consequence best describes what may have happened?** A. The researcher committed a Type I error. B. An opportunity to improve practice through an effective intervention may have been missed. C. The researcher necessarily introduced an ineffective or unsafe intervention. **21. What is essential when creating categories for a grouped frequency distribution?** A. Always report ungrouped data as well. B. Make the categories mutually exclusive. C. Use only nominal and ordinal variables. D. Allow category widths to vary arbitrarily. **22. Calculate the median of these 12 Beck Depression Scale scores: 17, 5, 9, 8, 22, 10, 2, 27, 11, 4, 2, and 24.** **23. Which distribution typically has a long right tail, with high-value outliers pulling the mean above the median and mode?** A. Negatively skewed. B. Positively skewed. C. Normal. **24. A unit receives a “Humpty Dumpty Award” for the lowest quarterly fall rate. Which stage of Lewin’s change model is illustrated by rewarding and reinforcing the improved practice?** A. Unfreezing. B. Changing. C. Refreezing. **25. Which listed action best supports communication of a change vision in Kotter’s model?** A. Hold only face-to-face meetings. B. Exclude administrators from the process. C. Place clear, change-related posters in prominent locations. D. Seek stakeholder feedback only after every plan is finalized.