Answers 2026/2027 – Complete Exam-Style
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1.
A 4N051 is preparing to administer a medication and discovers
that the patient's documented allergy conflicts with the
prescribed medication. What is the most appropriate initial
action?
A. Administer the medication because it was prescribed
B. Ask another technician whether the medication is safe
C. Hold the medication and notify the appropriate licensed
provider
D. Document the allergy after administering the medication
The medication should be withheld when a potentially serious
allergy conflict is identified, and the concern should be promptly
communicated to the responsible nurse or privileged provider. A
medication order does not override a newly identified safety
concern.
2.
,Which component of the CFETP provides the overall
management information necessary for the specialty?
A. Part II, Section A
B. Part II, Section B
C. Part I
D. The STS only
CFETP Part I provides information necessary for overall
management of the specialty, while Part II is used at the unit
level for training. The STS is contained within Part II, Section A.
3.
A patient becomes pale, diaphoretic, and dizzy shortly after
standing. The blood pressure decreases significantly compared
with the supine measurement. Which finding is most consistent
with this presentation?
A. Hypertension
B. Increased intracranial pressure
C. Orthostatic hypotension
D. Isolated bradycardia
Orthostatic hypotension is characterized by a clinically
significant blood-pressure decrease associated with positional
change, commonly producing dizziness, weakness, or syncope.
The technician should document the measurements and report
significant findings.
,4.
During a blood draw, which action best reduces the risk of
hemolysis?
A. Shake the tube vigorously after collection
B. Use a needle that is excessively small for the procedure
C. Allow the antiseptic to dry and avoid excessive force during
collection and mixing
D. Transfer blood between tubes whenever the volume is
insufficient
Hemolysis can result from traumatic collection, excessive
suction, improper needle selection, or vigorous tube handling.
Proper preparation and gentle handling help preserve specimen
integrity.
5.
A patient receiving an IV infusion develops sudden dyspnea,
chest discomfort, and a sense of impending doom. What is the
priority?
A. Increase the infusion rate
B. Place the patient flat and leave the room
C. Stop or assess the infusion according to protocol, assess the
patient, and immediately notify the appropriate clinical
personnel
D. Document the symptoms at the end of the shift
, Sudden cardiopulmonary symptoms during an infusion can
indicate a serious complication. Immediate patient assessment
and escalation are more important than routine documentation
or continuation of the infusion.
6.
Which ECG finding is most characteristic of normal sinus
rhythm?
A. Irregular rhythm with no relationship between P waves and
QRS complexes
B. Wide QRS complexes occurring independently of P waves
C. A P wave preceding each QRS complex with a consistent PR
relationship and regular rhythm
D. No identifiable atrial activity with a ventricular rate of
30/min
Normal sinus rhythm originates from the sinoatrial node. It
generally demonstrates regular atrial and ventricular activity, a
P wave before each QRS complex, and a consistent PR interval.
7.
A patient with suspected hypoglycemia is awake, able to
swallow, and exhibiting diaphoresis and tremors. Which finding
most strongly supports the suspected condition?
A. Warm, dry skin with bradycardia
B. Adrenergic symptoms such as tremor, sweating, and