REx-PN High-Yield Practice
Exam 2026–2027| Complete
Test Prep Practice Questions
With Answers & Detailed
Rationales |clinical Judgment
&Safety |A+ Rated
1. A nurse is assessing a client who suddenly reports shortness of
breath and chest discomfort. Which action should the nurse take
first?
A. Obtain a complete health history
B. Encourage oral fluids
C. Assess airway, breathing, and circulation
D. Ask the client to rate the pain
Rationale: ABC assessment identifies immediately life-threatening
problems and guides urgent interventions.
2. Which finding requires immediate follow-up in a postoperative
client?
A. Incisional pain rated 4/10
B. Temperature of 37.6°C
C. Oxygen saturation of 88%
D. Mild nausea
,Rationale: An oxygen saturation of 88% indicates significant
hypoxemia and requires prompt assessment and intervention.
3. A client is at risk for falls. Which intervention is most
appropriate?
A. Keep all four side rails raised
B. Place the call bell out of reach
C. Keep the bed low and the call bell within reach
D. Encourage the client to walk independently
Rationale: A low bed and accessible call bell reduce fall risk while
preserving the client's mobility and independence.
4. Which action is appropriate when performing hand hygiene?
A. Wash hands only when visibly soiled
B. Wear gloves instead of performing hand hygiene
C. Clean hands before and after client contact
D. Use hand lotion instead of hand hygiene
Rationale: Hand hygiene before and after client contact is a primary
measure for preventing transmission of infection.
5. A client has a prescription for a medication that the nurse
believes is unsafe. What should the nurse do?
A. Administer it because the provider prescribed it
B. Ask another client what they think
C. Hold the medication and clarify the prescription
D. Document the medication as given
Rationale: Nurses have a responsibility to question and clarify
prescriptions that may place clients at risk.
6. Which assessment finding is most concerning in a client receiving
opioid analgesia?
A. Constipation
B. Nausea
,C. Drowsiness
D. Respiratory rate of 8/min
Rationale: Severe respiratory depression is a potentially life-
threatening opioid adverse effect.
7. A client reports dizziness when standing. Which instruction is
appropriate?
A. Stand quickly to improve circulation
B. Avoid drinking fluids
C. Change positions slowly
D. Remain in bed continuously
Rationale: Slow position changes can reduce symptoms associated
with orthostatic hypotension.
8. Which intervention best promotes pressure-injury prevention?
A. Massage reddened areas
B. Keep the client in one position
C. Reposition the client regularly and inspect the skin
D. Apply powder to all skin folds
Rationale: Regular repositioning and skin assessment reduce
prolonged pressure and identify early tissue injury.
9. Which finding is most suggestive of dehydration?
A. Bounding pulse
B. Moist mucous membranes
C. Concentrated urine
D. Peripheral edema
Rationale: Concentrated urine occurs as the kidneys conserve water
during dehydration.
10. A nurse is preparing to administer medication. Which
identification method is safest?
, A. Room number and diagnosis
B. Client's appearance and room number
C. Two approved client identifiers
D. Medication administration record alone
Rationale: Two identifiers help prevent wrong-client medication
errors.
11. A client with limited mobility is at increased risk for venous
thromboembolism. Which intervention is appropriate?
A. Restrict fluids
B. Keep the legs crossed
C. Encourage prescribed mobility and leg exercises
D. Massage painful calves
Rationale: Mobility and leg exercises promote venous return. A
painful calf should not be massaged because a thrombus may be
present.
12. Which finding should the nurse report immediately?
A. Heart rate 78/min
B. Respiratory rate 18/min
C. Blood pressure 118/72 mm Hg
D. New confusion and difficulty awakening
Rationale: Acute alteration in level of consciousness may indicate
hypoxia, neurologic deterioration, medication effects, or another
emergency.
13. Which action maintains a sterile field?
A. Reaching over the sterile field
B. Turning away from the sterile field
C. Keeping sterile objects above waist level and within view
D. Touching sterile gloves with bare hands
Rationale: Sterile objects must be protected from contamination.
Exam 2026–2027| Complete
Test Prep Practice Questions
With Answers & Detailed
Rationales |clinical Judgment
&Safety |A+ Rated
1. A nurse is assessing a client who suddenly reports shortness of
breath and chest discomfort. Which action should the nurse take
first?
A. Obtain a complete health history
B. Encourage oral fluids
C. Assess airway, breathing, and circulation
D. Ask the client to rate the pain
Rationale: ABC assessment identifies immediately life-threatening
problems and guides urgent interventions.
2. Which finding requires immediate follow-up in a postoperative
client?
A. Incisional pain rated 4/10
B. Temperature of 37.6°C
C. Oxygen saturation of 88%
D. Mild nausea
,Rationale: An oxygen saturation of 88% indicates significant
hypoxemia and requires prompt assessment and intervention.
3. A client is at risk for falls. Which intervention is most
appropriate?
A. Keep all four side rails raised
B. Place the call bell out of reach
C. Keep the bed low and the call bell within reach
D. Encourage the client to walk independently
Rationale: A low bed and accessible call bell reduce fall risk while
preserving the client's mobility and independence.
4. Which action is appropriate when performing hand hygiene?
A. Wash hands only when visibly soiled
B. Wear gloves instead of performing hand hygiene
C. Clean hands before and after client contact
D. Use hand lotion instead of hand hygiene
Rationale: Hand hygiene before and after client contact is a primary
measure for preventing transmission of infection.
5. A client has a prescription for a medication that the nurse
believes is unsafe. What should the nurse do?
A. Administer it because the provider prescribed it
B. Ask another client what they think
C. Hold the medication and clarify the prescription
D. Document the medication as given
Rationale: Nurses have a responsibility to question and clarify
prescriptions that may place clients at risk.
6. Which assessment finding is most concerning in a client receiving
opioid analgesia?
A. Constipation
B. Nausea
,C. Drowsiness
D. Respiratory rate of 8/min
Rationale: Severe respiratory depression is a potentially life-
threatening opioid adverse effect.
7. A client reports dizziness when standing. Which instruction is
appropriate?
A. Stand quickly to improve circulation
B. Avoid drinking fluids
C. Change positions slowly
D. Remain in bed continuously
Rationale: Slow position changes can reduce symptoms associated
with orthostatic hypotension.
8. Which intervention best promotes pressure-injury prevention?
A. Massage reddened areas
B. Keep the client in one position
C. Reposition the client regularly and inspect the skin
D. Apply powder to all skin folds
Rationale: Regular repositioning and skin assessment reduce
prolonged pressure and identify early tissue injury.
9. Which finding is most suggestive of dehydration?
A. Bounding pulse
B. Moist mucous membranes
C. Concentrated urine
D. Peripheral edema
Rationale: Concentrated urine occurs as the kidneys conserve water
during dehydration.
10. A nurse is preparing to administer medication. Which
identification method is safest?
, A. Room number and diagnosis
B. Client's appearance and room number
C. Two approved client identifiers
D. Medication administration record alone
Rationale: Two identifiers help prevent wrong-client medication
errors.
11. A client with limited mobility is at increased risk for venous
thromboembolism. Which intervention is appropriate?
A. Restrict fluids
B. Keep the legs crossed
C. Encourage prescribed mobility and leg exercises
D. Massage painful calves
Rationale: Mobility and leg exercises promote venous return. A
painful calf should not be massaged because a thrombus may be
present.
12. Which finding should the nurse report immediately?
A. Heart rate 78/min
B. Respiratory rate 18/min
C. Blood pressure 118/72 mm Hg
D. New confusion and difficulty awakening
Rationale: Acute alteration in level of consciousness may indicate
hypoxia, neurologic deterioration, medication effects, or another
emergency.
13. Which action maintains a sterile field?
A. Reaching over the sterile field
B. Turning away from the sterile field
C. Keeping sterile objects above waist level and within view
D. Touching sterile gloves with bare hands
Rationale: Sterile objects must be protected from contamination.
