NSG 3100 Exam 3 - Galen College 2026/2027 2 Versions - 200+ Questions - Verified A+
NSG 3100 Exam 3 — Galen College 2026/2027
Newest Exam — 2 Versions with 200+ Questions
Fundamental Concepts and Skills for Nursing Practice I
Examination Overview: This comprehensive exam contains 200 multiple-choice questions distributed across
TWO complete exam versions (Version A and Version B), aligned with Galen College NSG 3100 course
objectives for 2026/2027. Each version includes 100 questions across eight content domains: nursing process
and clinical judgment; safety and infection control; vital signs and assessment; medication administration;
activity, mobility, and wound care; nutrition, fluids, and elimination; communication and documentation; and
perioperative and emergency nursing. Each question presents four options (A–D) with one correct answer
identified by [CORRECT] and is followed by a detailed rationale explaining the correct response and
identifying common pitfalls in each distractor.
Cognitive Level Distribution: Approximately 30% of questions target recall of fundamental nursing
concepts, definitions, and procedures; 50% require application of nursing principles to clinical scenarios
including prioritization, delegation, and safety decisions; and 20% demand analysis integrating multiple
concepts (e.g., recognizing deterioration, evaluating effectiveness). Approximately 75% of items are
scenario-based; 25% are direct recall. Distractors reflect common fundamental nursing student errors
including incorrect prioritization, breaching sterile technique, misidentifying normal vs. abnormal findings,
incorrect medication calculations, improper isolation precautions, and unsafe delegation. All answers are 100%
verified and graded A+.
VERSION A — 100 Questions (Q1–Q100)
Nursing Process, Safety, Assessment, Medications, Mobility, Nutrition, Communication,
Perioperative
Section 1A: Nursing Process and Clinical Judgment
ADPIE, Assessment, Diagnosis, Planning, Implementation, & Evaluation (Q1-Q15)
Q1: A nurse is caring for a client with heart failure who reports increased shortness of breath and
has 2+ pitting edema. Which step of the nursing process does the nurse use to identify these cues?
A. Assessment—the nurse is collecting subjective (client’s report of dyspnea) and objective (2+
pitting edema) data to form the basis for clinical decisions. [CORRECT]
B. Diagnosis—the nurse is identifying the patient’s problem of fluid volume overload.
Galen College - NSG 3100 Fundamental Concepts & Skills for Nursing Practice I Page 1
,NSG 3100 Exam 3 - Galen College 2026/2027 2 Versions - 200+ Questions - Verified A+
C. Planning—the nurse is establishing the goal of improved breathing.
D. Implementation—the nurse is administering furosemide as ordered.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Assessment is the systematic collection of subjective and objective data. The nurse is gathering cues
(SOB report and edema finding) before formulating a diagnosis or plan. Diagnosis requires analysis of assessment
data (B). Planning involves setting goals (C). Implementation is carrying out interventions (D). The correct answer is
A.
Q2: A nurse identifies the client problem as ‘Impaired Gas Exchange related to alveolar-capillary
membrane changes.’ This is an example of which type of nursing diagnostic statement?
A. A three-part (PES) diagnostic statement: Problem (Impaired Gas Exchange) + Etiology
(alveolar-capillary membrane changes) + Signs/symptoms (would be added for actual diagnoses).
[CORRECT]
B. A wellness diagnosis describing a desire to improve health.
C. A collaborative problem requiring physician intervention only.
D. A medical diagnosis rather than a nursing diagnosis.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The PES format (Problem + Etiology + Symptoms) is the traditional structure for actual nursing
diagnoses. ‘Related to’ introduces the etiology. A wellness diagnosis describes potential for enhancement (B).
Collaborative problems involve complications nurses monitor and manage with medicine (C). A medical diagnosis
(e.g., heart failure) is not a nursing diagnosis (D). The correct answer is A.
Q3: Which of the following is an example of a correctly written SMART nursing goal?
A. ‘The client will ambulate 50 feet in the hallway with assistance three times daily within 48
hours.’ [CORRECT]
B. ‘The client’s mobility will improve.’
C. ‘The nurse will ambulate the client frequently.’
D. ‘The client will not fall.’
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: SMART goals are Specific (50 feet, hallway, with assistance), Measurable (50 feet, 3 times daily),
Achievable, Relevant, and Time-bound (within 48 hours). B lacks measurability and timeframe. C is a nursing
action, not a client goal. D is non-measurable and negatively framed. The correct answer is A.
Q4: A client has a nursing diagnosis of Acute Pain related to surgical incision. The nurse
implements repositioning, administers analgesics, and provides a warm compress. Evaluation
reveals the client reports pain decreased from 8/10 to 3/10. Which step of the nursing process is
the nurse performing?
A. Evaluation—determining the extent to which outcomes were achieved (pain reduction from 8
to 3 out of 10). [CORRECT]
B. Assessment—collecting initial pain data.
C. Diagnosis—identifying Acute Pain.
D. Implementation—administering analgesic.
Correct Answer: A
Galen College - NSG 3100 Fundamental Concepts & Skills for Nursing Practice I Page 2
,NSG 3100 Exam 3 - Galen College 2026/2027 2 Versions - 200+ Questions - Verified A+
Rationale: Evaluation determines whether the goals were met. Comparing the client’s pain rating before and after
interventions directly assesses goal achievement. Assessment (B) is initial data collection, Diagnosis (C) is problem
identification, and Implementation (D) is intervention execution. The correct answer is A.
Q5: A nurse is planning care for a client receiving patient-controlled analgesia (PCA). Which is an
appropriate nursing diagnosis?
A. Risk for Ineffective Breathing Pattern related to opioid-induced respiratory depression.
[CORRECT]
B. Risk for Pain (this is not a valid NANDA-I diagnosis).
C. Possible Risk for Addiction related to opioid use (this is not a NANDA diagnosis).
D. Acute Pain related to no PCA order.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: ‘Risk for Ineffective Breathing Pattern’ is a NANDA-I diagnosis appropriate for clients on opioids, who
may experience respiratory depression. ‘Risk for Pain’ is not a NANDA diagnosis (B). ‘Possible Risk for Addiction’
is not a NANDA diagnosis and stigmatizes pain management (C). Option D is unlikely since PCA implies an order.
The correct answer is A.
Q6: A nurse is assessing a client who reports ‘burning when I urinate.’ The nurse notes cloudy
urine and a temperature of 101°F. Using Tanner’s Clinical Judgment Model, which step is the
nurse demonstrating by recognizing these cues as a possible UTI?
A. Noticing (Step 1)—the nurse notices and collects relevant cues suggesting a UTI. [CORRECT]
B. Interpreting (Step 2)—the nurse analyzes the data to form a hypothesis.
C. Responding (Step 3)—the nurse implements interventions such as obtaining a urine culture.
D. Reflecting (Step 4)—the nurse reflects on the outcome after intervention.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Tanner’s Model: Noticing (collecting cues), Interpreting (analyzing), Responding (acting), Reflecting
(reviewing). Recognizing cloudy urine, dysuria, and fever as a UTI pattern is ‘Noticing.’ B, C, and D are subsequent
steps. The correct answer is A.
Q7: A nurse collects objective data during assessment of a postoperative client. Which finding is
an example of objective data?
A. Incisional drain with 50 mL of serosanguineous output documented in the OR record.
[CORRECT]
B. Client’s statement: ‘My pain is unbearable.’
C. Client’s report of nausea after anesthesia.
D. Family member’s statement that the client ‘looks pale.’
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Objective data are observable and measurable (drain output of 50 mL). Subjective data are what the
client or family states—B, C, and D are subjective. The correct answer is A.
Q8: A nurse is caring for four clients. Using Maslow’s Hierarchy, which client should the nurse
assess FIRST?
A. A client with a respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min after opioid administration (physiological
need—airway/breathing is the highest priority). [CORRECT]
Galen College - NSG 3100 Fundamental Concepts & Skills for Nursing Practice I Page 3
, NSG 3100 Exam 3 - Galen College 2026/2027 2 Versions - 200+ Questions - Verified A+
B. A client requesting pain medication for chronic back pain (physiological need, but lower priority than
airway).
C. A client who is anxious about an upcoming procedure (safety/security need).
D. A client whose family has not visited in two days (love/belonging need).
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Maslow’s hierarchy places physiological needs (airway, breathing, circulation) first. RR of 8 after
opioids suggests respiratory depression requiring immediate intervention. B, C, and D are valid concerns but lower
priority. The correct answer is A.
Q9: A nursing diagnosis differs from a medical diagnosis in that a nursing diagnosis:
A. Identifies the client’s response to illness, focusing on actual or potential problems that nurses
can independently prevent or treat, while a medical diagnosis identifies a disease process.
[CORRECT]
B. Is the same as a medical diagnosis but written by a nurse.
C. Is always more important than a medical diagnosis.
D. Identifies only the physical disease process.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Nursing diagnoses describe client responses (e.g., Acute Pain, Anxiety) that nurses can independently
prevent or treat; medical diagnoses identify disease processes (e.g., appendicitis). B, C, and D misstate the
distinction. The correct answer is A.
Q10: A nurse formulates a care plan with a goal of ‘Client will verbalize understanding of insulin
injection technique before discharge.’ This goal is BEST classified as:
A. A cognitive goal—the client will demonstrate knowledge by verbalization. [CORRECT]
B. A psychomotor goal—the client will perform a physical skill.
C. An affective goal—the client will express feelings or values.
D. A long-term goal—the goal extends beyond discharge.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Verbalizing understanding is a cognitive (knowledge) goal. Psychomotor goals involve physical skill
performance (B). Affective goals involve values/feelings (C). A short-term goal is met before discharge; this is not
long-term (D). The correct answer is A.
Q11: A new graduate nurse is preparing to teach a client about a low-sodium diet. Which teaching
strategy is MOST effective?
A. Use teach-back: ask the client to repeat the dietary recommendations in their own words to
confirm understanding. [CORRECT]
B. Provide a 20-page printed booklet and assume the client will read it.
C. Speak at length using complex medical jargon to demonstrate expertise.
D. Provide all teaching when the client is being discharged to save time.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Teach-back (also called closed-loop communication) confirms understanding by having the client restate
information in their own words. B, C, and D are ineffective teaching strategies—booklets alone are passive, jargon
creates barriers, and rushed discharge teaching is ineffective. The correct answer is A.
Galen College - NSG 3100 Fundamental Concepts & Skills for Nursing Practice I Page 4
NSG 3100 Exam 3 — Galen College 2026/2027
Newest Exam — 2 Versions with 200+ Questions
Fundamental Concepts and Skills for Nursing Practice I
Examination Overview: This comprehensive exam contains 200 multiple-choice questions distributed across
TWO complete exam versions (Version A and Version B), aligned with Galen College NSG 3100 course
objectives for 2026/2027. Each version includes 100 questions across eight content domains: nursing process
and clinical judgment; safety and infection control; vital signs and assessment; medication administration;
activity, mobility, and wound care; nutrition, fluids, and elimination; communication and documentation; and
perioperative and emergency nursing. Each question presents four options (A–D) with one correct answer
identified by [CORRECT] and is followed by a detailed rationale explaining the correct response and
identifying common pitfalls in each distractor.
Cognitive Level Distribution: Approximately 30% of questions target recall of fundamental nursing
concepts, definitions, and procedures; 50% require application of nursing principles to clinical scenarios
including prioritization, delegation, and safety decisions; and 20% demand analysis integrating multiple
concepts (e.g., recognizing deterioration, evaluating effectiveness). Approximately 75% of items are
scenario-based; 25% are direct recall. Distractors reflect common fundamental nursing student errors
including incorrect prioritization, breaching sterile technique, misidentifying normal vs. abnormal findings,
incorrect medication calculations, improper isolation precautions, and unsafe delegation. All answers are 100%
verified and graded A+.
VERSION A — 100 Questions (Q1–Q100)
Nursing Process, Safety, Assessment, Medications, Mobility, Nutrition, Communication,
Perioperative
Section 1A: Nursing Process and Clinical Judgment
ADPIE, Assessment, Diagnosis, Planning, Implementation, & Evaluation (Q1-Q15)
Q1: A nurse is caring for a client with heart failure who reports increased shortness of breath and
has 2+ pitting edema. Which step of the nursing process does the nurse use to identify these cues?
A. Assessment—the nurse is collecting subjective (client’s report of dyspnea) and objective (2+
pitting edema) data to form the basis for clinical decisions. [CORRECT]
B. Diagnosis—the nurse is identifying the patient’s problem of fluid volume overload.
Galen College - NSG 3100 Fundamental Concepts & Skills for Nursing Practice I Page 1
,NSG 3100 Exam 3 - Galen College 2026/2027 2 Versions - 200+ Questions - Verified A+
C. Planning—the nurse is establishing the goal of improved breathing.
D. Implementation—the nurse is administering furosemide as ordered.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Assessment is the systematic collection of subjective and objective data. The nurse is gathering cues
(SOB report and edema finding) before formulating a diagnosis or plan. Diagnosis requires analysis of assessment
data (B). Planning involves setting goals (C). Implementation is carrying out interventions (D). The correct answer is
A.
Q2: A nurse identifies the client problem as ‘Impaired Gas Exchange related to alveolar-capillary
membrane changes.’ This is an example of which type of nursing diagnostic statement?
A. A three-part (PES) diagnostic statement: Problem (Impaired Gas Exchange) + Etiology
(alveolar-capillary membrane changes) + Signs/symptoms (would be added for actual diagnoses).
[CORRECT]
B. A wellness diagnosis describing a desire to improve health.
C. A collaborative problem requiring physician intervention only.
D. A medical diagnosis rather than a nursing diagnosis.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The PES format (Problem + Etiology + Symptoms) is the traditional structure for actual nursing
diagnoses. ‘Related to’ introduces the etiology. A wellness diagnosis describes potential for enhancement (B).
Collaborative problems involve complications nurses monitor and manage with medicine (C). A medical diagnosis
(e.g., heart failure) is not a nursing diagnosis (D). The correct answer is A.
Q3: Which of the following is an example of a correctly written SMART nursing goal?
A. ‘The client will ambulate 50 feet in the hallway with assistance three times daily within 48
hours.’ [CORRECT]
B. ‘The client’s mobility will improve.’
C. ‘The nurse will ambulate the client frequently.’
D. ‘The client will not fall.’
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: SMART goals are Specific (50 feet, hallway, with assistance), Measurable (50 feet, 3 times daily),
Achievable, Relevant, and Time-bound (within 48 hours). B lacks measurability and timeframe. C is a nursing
action, not a client goal. D is non-measurable and negatively framed. The correct answer is A.
Q4: A client has a nursing diagnosis of Acute Pain related to surgical incision. The nurse
implements repositioning, administers analgesics, and provides a warm compress. Evaluation
reveals the client reports pain decreased from 8/10 to 3/10. Which step of the nursing process is
the nurse performing?
A. Evaluation—determining the extent to which outcomes were achieved (pain reduction from 8
to 3 out of 10). [CORRECT]
B. Assessment—collecting initial pain data.
C. Diagnosis—identifying Acute Pain.
D. Implementation—administering analgesic.
Correct Answer: A
Galen College - NSG 3100 Fundamental Concepts & Skills for Nursing Practice I Page 2
,NSG 3100 Exam 3 - Galen College 2026/2027 2 Versions - 200+ Questions - Verified A+
Rationale: Evaluation determines whether the goals were met. Comparing the client’s pain rating before and after
interventions directly assesses goal achievement. Assessment (B) is initial data collection, Diagnosis (C) is problem
identification, and Implementation (D) is intervention execution. The correct answer is A.
Q5: A nurse is planning care for a client receiving patient-controlled analgesia (PCA). Which is an
appropriate nursing diagnosis?
A. Risk for Ineffective Breathing Pattern related to opioid-induced respiratory depression.
[CORRECT]
B. Risk for Pain (this is not a valid NANDA-I diagnosis).
C. Possible Risk for Addiction related to opioid use (this is not a NANDA diagnosis).
D. Acute Pain related to no PCA order.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: ‘Risk for Ineffective Breathing Pattern’ is a NANDA-I diagnosis appropriate for clients on opioids, who
may experience respiratory depression. ‘Risk for Pain’ is not a NANDA diagnosis (B). ‘Possible Risk for Addiction’
is not a NANDA diagnosis and stigmatizes pain management (C). Option D is unlikely since PCA implies an order.
The correct answer is A.
Q6: A nurse is assessing a client who reports ‘burning when I urinate.’ The nurse notes cloudy
urine and a temperature of 101°F. Using Tanner’s Clinical Judgment Model, which step is the
nurse demonstrating by recognizing these cues as a possible UTI?
A. Noticing (Step 1)—the nurse notices and collects relevant cues suggesting a UTI. [CORRECT]
B. Interpreting (Step 2)—the nurse analyzes the data to form a hypothesis.
C. Responding (Step 3)—the nurse implements interventions such as obtaining a urine culture.
D. Reflecting (Step 4)—the nurse reflects on the outcome after intervention.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Tanner’s Model: Noticing (collecting cues), Interpreting (analyzing), Responding (acting), Reflecting
(reviewing). Recognizing cloudy urine, dysuria, and fever as a UTI pattern is ‘Noticing.’ B, C, and D are subsequent
steps. The correct answer is A.
Q7: A nurse collects objective data during assessment of a postoperative client. Which finding is
an example of objective data?
A. Incisional drain with 50 mL of serosanguineous output documented in the OR record.
[CORRECT]
B. Client’s statement: ‘My pain is unbearable.’
C. Client’s report of nausea after anesthesia.
D. Family member’s statement that the client ‘looks pale.’
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Objective data are observable and measurable (drain output of 50 mL). Subjective data are what the
client or family states—B, C, and D are subjective. The correct answer is A.
Q8: A nurse is caring for four clients. Using Maslow’s Hierarchy, which client should the nurse
assess FIRST?
A. A client with a respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min after opioid administration (physiological
need—airway/breathing is the highest priority). [CORRECT]
Galen College - NSG 3100 Fundamental Concepts & Skills for Nursing Practice I Page 3
, NSG 3100 Exam 3 - Galen College 2026/2027 2 Versions - 200+ Questions - Verified A+
B. A client requesting pain medication for chronic back pain (physiological need, but lower priority than
airway).
C. A client who is anxious about an upcoming procedure (safety/security need).
D. A client whose family has not visited in two days (love/belonging need).
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Maslow’s hierarchy places physiological needs (airway, breathing, circulation) first. RR of 8 after
opioids suggests respiratory depression requiring immediate intervention. B, C, and D are valid concerns but lower
priority. The correct answer is A.
Q9: A nursing diagnosis differs from a medical diagnosis in that a nursing diagnosis:
A. Identifies the client’s response to illness, focusing on actual or potential problems that nurses
can independently prevent or treat, while a medical diagnosis identifies a disease process.
[CORRECT]
B. Is the same as a medical diagnosis but written by a nurse.
C. Is always more important than a medical diagnosis.
D. Identifies only the physical disease process.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Nursing diagnoses describe client responses (e.g., Acute Pain, Anxiety) that nurses can independently
prevent or treat; medical diagnoses identify disease processes (e.g., appendicitis). B, C, and D misstate the
distinction. The correct answer is A.
Q10: A nurse formulates a care plan with a goal of ‘Client will verbalize understanding of insulin
injection technique before discharge.’ This goal is BEST classified as:
A. A cognitive goal—the client will demonstrate knowledge by verbalization. [CORRECT]
B. A psychomotor goal—the client will perform a physical skill.
C. An affective goal—the client will express feelings or values.
D. A long-term goal—the goal extends beyond discharge.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Verbalizing understanding is a cognitive (knowledge) goal. Psychomotor goals involve physical skill
performance (B). Affective goals involve values/feelings (C). A short-term goal is met before discharge; this is not
long-term (D). The correct answer is A.
Q11: A new graduate nurse is preparing to teach a client about a low-sodium diet. Which teaching
strategy is MOST effective?
A. Use teach-back: ask the client to repeat the dietary recommendations in their own words to
confirm understanding. [CORRECT]
B. Provide a 20-page printed booklet and assume the client will read it.
C. Speak at length using complex medical jargon to demonstrate expertise.
D. Provide all teaching when the client is being discharged to save time.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Teach-back (also called closed-loop communication) confirms understanding by having the client restate
information in their own words. B, C, and D are ineffective teaching strategies—booklets alone are passive, jargon
creates barriers, and rushed discharge teaching is ineffective. The correct answer is A.
Galen College - NSG 3100 Fundamental Concepts & Skills for Nursing Practice I Page 4
