NUR2513 Maternal-Child Nursing – Exam 1 (2026/2027)
Actual Exam 2026/2027 – Complete Exam-Style Questions
with Detailed Rationales | 100% Verified – Pass
Guaranteed – A+ Graded
Instructions: Select the single best answer for each question. Each question is worth one
point. Choose the response that best reflects safe, evidence-based maternal-child nursing
practice.
--- Section A: Maternal Physiological Adaptations and Antepartum Care ---
Q1: A pregnant client at 28 weeks gestation reports her obstetric history as follows: one
previous pregnancy ending in a miscarriage at 10 weeks, one twin pregnancy delivered at 36
weeks, and her current pregnancy. How should the nurse document her GTPAL?
A. G3 T1 P1 A1 L2
B. G3 T0 P1 A1 L2
C. G4 T0 P1 A1 L2
D. G3 T0 P2 A1 L2
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: This choice is correct because the client has been pregnant 3 times (G3), has had
zero term deliveries (T0), one preterm delivery (the twins count as one preterm event, P1),
one abortion/miscriage (A1), and two living children (L2).
Q2: During a prenatal visit, a client at 20 weeks gestation asks why she has been feeling
dizzy when standing up quickly. What is the best physiological explanation for this?
A. Increased blood volume causes hypervolemia and dizziness.
B. The enlarging uterus compresses the vena cava, decreasing venous return.
C. Progesterone causes systemic vasodilation, leading to transient hypotension.
D. Increased metabolic demands deplete blood glucose rapidly.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The best answer is C. This aligns with the principle that high progesterone levels
during pregnancy cause smooth muscle relaxation and systemic vasodilation, which can lead
to transient orthostatic hypotension and dizziness.
Q3: A client at 10 weeks gestation is scheduled for her first prenatal screening. Which test is
most appropriate to offer at this time to assess for chromosomal abnormalities?
A. Quad screen
B. Cell-free fetal DNA testing
C. Amniocentesis
D. Biophysical profile
Correct Answer: B
,Rationale: This choice is correct because cell-free fetal DNA testing can be performed as
early as 10 weeks gestation to screen for common chromosomal abnormalities like Down
syndrome. The quad screen is done in the second trimester, and amniocentesis is typically
performed after 15 weeks.
Q4: The nurse is providing prenatal nutrition education. Which statement by the client
indicates a need for further teaching regarding folic acid supplementation?
A. "I will take my prenatal vitamin every morning with breakfast."
B. "I need 400 mcg of folic acid daily to prevent neural tube defects."
C. "I can stop taking folic acid once I reach my second trimester."
D. "Dark leafy greens and fortified cereals are good dietary sources of folate."
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: This choice is correct because folic acid supplementation should continue
throughout the entire pregnancy, not just the first trimester, to support ongoing fetal
growth and prevent maternal anemia.
Q5: A client at 32 weeks gestation calls the clinic reporting a severe, persistent headache
and blurred vision. What is the nurse's priority action?
A. Instruct the client to take acetaminophen and rest in a dark room.
B. Tell the client to increase her fluid intake and call back tomorrow.
C. Advise the client to go to the nearest labor and delivery triage immediately.
D. Ask the client if she has experienced any recent vaginal bleeding.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In this situation, the priority is C. Severe headache and visual changes are classic
danger signs of preeclampsia, requiring immediate in-person evaluation to prevent seizures
or other severe complications.
Q6: A client with severe preeclampsia is receiving magnesium sulfate. Which assessment
finding indicates magnesium toxicity?
A. Deep tendon reflexes of 1+
B. Urine output of 40 mL/hr
C. Respiratory rate of 10 breaths/min
D. Blood pressure of 150/90 mm Hg
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: This matches the expected finding for magnesium toxicity, which includes
respiratory depression (less than 12 breaths/min), absent deep tendon reflexes, and
decreased urine output. A respiratory rate of 10 requires immediate intervention and
possible administration of calcium gluconate.
Q7: The nurse reviews the laboratory results of a client suspected of having HELLP
syndrome. Which finding is most consistent with this diagnosis?
A. Platelet count of 150,000/mm³
B. Elevated liver enzymes (AST and ALT)
C. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL
D. Fasting blood glucose of 90 mg/dL
Correct Answer: B
, Rationale: The best answer is B. HELLP syndrome is characterized by Hemolysis, Elevated
Liver enzymes, and Low Platelets. An elevated AST or ALT directly supports this diagnosis,
whereas the other values are within normal limits.
Q8: A client newly diagnosed with gestational diabetes asks why she needs to monitor her
blood sugar if she didn't have diabetes before pregnancy. What is the nurse's best
response?
A. "Pregnancy hormones cause insulin resistance, making it harder for your body to use
insulin effectively."
B. "The placenta produces too much insulin, which drops your blood sugar dangerously
low."
C. "Gestational diabetes means you will definitely need insulin injections for the rest of your
life."
D. "Your pancreas has permanently stopped producing insulin due to the stress of
pregnancy."
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: This choice is correct because placental hormones like human placental lactogen
induce insulin resistance. This explains why blood glucose rises during pregnancy even in
women without prior diabetes, and why monitoring is essential.
Q9: A client at 9 weeks gestation is admitted with hyperemesis gravidarum. Which nursing
intervention is the highest priority?
A. Administer prescribed antiemetics and IV fluids.
B. Provide small, frequent, bland meals.
C. Encourage the partner to stay with the client.
D. Assess the client's knowledge of pregnancy nutrition.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In this situation, the priority is A. Hyperemesis gravidarum leads to severe
dehydration and electrolyte imbalances, making IV fluid resuscitation and pharmacological
symptom control the most critical, life-sustaining interventions.
Q10: A client at 34 weeks gestation presents with painless, bright red vaginal bleeding.
Which condition should the nurse suspect?
A. Placental abruption
B. Placenta previa
C. Uterine rupture
D. Vasa previa
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: This aligns with the principle that placenta previa classically presents as painless,
bright red vaginal bleeding in the third trimester. Abruption typically presents with painful,
dark red bleeding and a rigid abdomen.
Q11: A client who is Rh-negative delivers an Rh-positive newborn. When should the nurse
anticipate administering Rho(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM)?
A. Within 24 hours of delivery
B. Within 72 hours of delivery
C. At the 6-week postpartum visit
Actual Exam 2026/2027 – Complete Exam-Style Questions
with Detailed Rationales | 100% Verified – Pass
Guaranteed – A+ Graded
Instructions: Select the single best answer for each question. Each question is worth one
point. Choose the response that best reflects safe, evidence-based maternal-child nursing
practice.
--- Section A: Maternal Physiological Adaptations and Antepartum Care ---
Q1: A pregnant client at 28 weeks gestation reports her obstetric history as follows: one
previous pregnancy ending in a miscarriage at 10 weeks, one twin pregnancy delivered at 36
weeks, and her current pregnancy. How should the nurse document her GTPAL?
A. G3 T1 P1 A1 L2
B. G3 T0 P1 A1 L2
C. G4 T0 P1 A1 L2
D. G3 T0 P2 A1 L2
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: This choice is correct because the client has been pregnant 3 times (G3), has had
zero term deliveries (T0), one preterm delivery (the twins count as one preterm event, P1),
one abortion/miscriage (A1), and two living children (L2).
Q2: During a prenatal visit, a client at 20 weeks gestation asks why she has been feeling
dizzy when standing up quickly. What is the best physiological explanation for this?
A. Increased blood volume causes hypervolemia and dizziness.
B. The enlarging uterus compresses the vena cava, decreasing venous return.
C. Progesterone causes systemic vasodilation, leading to transient hypotension.
D. Increased metabolic demands deplete blood glucose rapidly.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The best answer is C. This aligns with the principle that high progesterone levels
during pregnancy cause smooth muscle relaxation and systemic vasodilation, which can lead
to transient orthostatic hypotension and dizziness.
Q3: A client at 10 weeks gestation is scheduled for her first prenatal screening. Which test is
most appropriate to offer at this time to assess for chromosomal abnormalities?
A. Quad screen
B. Cell-free fetal DNA testing
C. Amniocentesis
D. Biophysical profile
Correct Answer: B
,Rationale: This choice is correct because cell-free fetal DNA testing can be performed as
early as 10 weeks gestation to screen for common chromosomal abnormalities like Down
syndrome. The quad screen is done in the second trimester, and amniocentesis is typically
performed after 15 weeks.
Q4: The nurse is providing prenatal nutrition education. Which statement by the client
indicates a need for further teaching regarding folic acid supplementation?
A. "I will take my prenatal vitamin every morning with breakfast."
B. "I need 400 mcg of folic acid daily to prevent neural tube defects."
C. "I can stop taking folic acid once I reach my second trimester."
D. "Dark leafy greens and fortified cereals are good dietary sources of folate."
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: This choice is correct because folic acid supplementation should continue
throughout the entire pregnancy, not just the first trimester, to support ongoing fetal
growth and prevent maternal anemia.
Q5: A client at 32 weeks gestation calls the clinic reporting a severe, persistent headache
and blurred vision. What is the nurse's priority action?
A. Instruct the client to take acetaminophen and rest in a dark room.
B. Tell the client to increase her fluid intake and call back tomorrow.
C. Advise the client to go to the nearest labor and delivery triage immediately.
D. Ask the client if she has experienced any recent vaginal bleeding.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In this situation, the priority is C. Severe headache and visual changes are classic
danger signs of preeclampsia, requiring immediate in-person evaluation to prevent seizures
or other severe complications.
Q6: A client with severe preeclampsia is receiving magnesium sulfate. Which assessment
finding indicates magnesium toxicity?
A. Deep tendon reflexes of 1+
B. Urine output of 40 mL/hr
C. Respiratory rate of 10 breaths/min
D. Blood pressure of 150/90 mm Hg
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: This matches the expected finding for magnesium toxicity, which includes
respiratory depression (less than 12 breaths/min), absent deep tendon reflexes, and
decreased urine output. A respiratory rate of 10 requires immediate intervention and
possible administration of calcium gluconate.
Q7: The nurse reviews the laboratory results of a client suspected of having HELLP
syndrome. Which finding is most consistent with this diagnosis?
A. Platelet count of 150,000/mm³
B. Elevated liver enzymes (AST and ALT)
C. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL
D. Fasting blood glucose of 90 mg/dL
Correct Answer: B
, Rationale: The best answer is B. HELLP syndrome is characterized by Hemolysis, Elevated
Liver enzymes, and Low Platelets. An elevated AST or ALT directly supports this diagnosis,
whereas the other values are within normal limits.
Q8: A client newly diagnosed with gestational diabetes asks why she needs to monitor her
blood sugar if she didn't have diabetes before pregnancy. What is the nurse's best
response?
A. "Pregnancy hormones cause insulin resistance, making it harder for your body to use
insulin effectively."
B. "The placenta produces too much insulin, which drops your blood sugar dangerously
low."
C. "Gestational diabetes means you will definitely need insulin injections for the rest of your
life."
D. "Your pancreas has permanently stopped producing insulin due to the stress of
pregnancy."
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: This choice is correct because placental hormones like human placental lactogen
induce insulin resistance. This explains why blood glucose rises during pregnancy even in
women without prior diabetes, and why monitoring is essential.
Q9: A client at 9 weeks gestation is admitted with hyperemesis gravidarum. Which nursing
intervention is the highest priority?
A. Administer prescribed antiemetics and IV fluids.
B. Provide small, frequent, bland meals.
C. Encourage the partner to stay with the client.
D. Assess the client's knowledge of pregnancy nutrition.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In this situation, the priority is A. Hyperemesis gravidarum leads to severe
dehydration and electrolyte imbalances, making IV fluid resuscitation and pharmacological
symptom control the most critical, life-sustaining interventions.
Q10: A client at 34 weeks gestation presents with painless, bright red vaginal bleeding.
Which condition should the nurse suspect?
A. Placental abruption
B. Placenta previa
C. Uterine rupture
D. Vasa previa
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: This aligns with the principle that placenta previa classically presents as painless,
bright red vaginal bleeding in the third trimester. Abruption typically presents with painful,
dark red bleeding and a rigid abdomen.
Q11: A client who is Rh-negative delivers an Rh-positive newborn. When should the nurse
anticipate administering Rho(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM)?
A. Within 24 hours of delivery
B. Within 72 hours of delivery
C. At the 6-week postpartum visit
