ATI PN MATERNAL-NEWBORN NURSING PROCTORED EXAM
QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED ANSWERS | 100% CORRECT | GRADE A+
CORE DOMAINS
• Antepartum Care and Fetal Development
• Intrapartum Care and Labor Complications
• Postpartum Assessment and Complications
• Newborn Assessment and Immediate Care
• High-Risk Pregnancy and Obstetric Emergencies
• Maternal-Newborn Pharmacology and Medication Safety
• Patient Education and Health Promotion
• Cultural Competence and Family-Centered Care
• NGN Unfolding Case Studies: Clinical Judgment
INTRODUCTION
This comprehensive examination is designed for practical nursing students
preparing for the ATI PN Maternal-Newborn Nursing Proctored Exam. It
contains verified questions with correct answers and detailed rationales
covering the core domains of maternal-newborn nursing. The examination
mirrors the ATI proctored exam format and emphasizes clinical judgment,
prioritization, medication safety, and family-centered care. Each question is
accompanied by a detailed rationale to reinforce understanding of
maternal-newborn concepts and safe clinical decision-making.
SECTION ONE: QUESTIONS 1–100
1. A client at 10 weeks of gestation reports nausea and vomiting.
Which instruction should the nurse include?
A. Eat large meals to reduce stomach acid.
B. Drink fluids only with meals.
C. Eat small, frequent meals throughout the day.
D. Avoid all carbohydrates.
, C. Eat small, frequent meals throughout the day.
RATIONALE: Nausea and vomiting of pregnancy is best managed with
small, frequent meals to prevent an empty stomach. Dry crackers before
rising may also help.
2. A client at 28 weeks of gestation is Rh-negative with a negative
indirect Coombs test. Which action should the nurse anticipate?
A. Administer Rho(D) immune globulin at 36 weeks.
B. Administer Rho(D) immune globulin at 28 weeks.
C. No intervention is needed.
D. Administer Rho(D) immune globulin within 72 hours after delivery only.
B. Administer Rho(D) immune globulin at 28 weeks.
RATIONALE: Rh-negative clients receive Rho(D) immune globulin at 28
weeks of gestation and within 72 hours after delivery if the newborn is Rh-
positive.
3. A client at 36 weeks of gestation reports visual disturbances and a
severe headache. Which condition should the nurse suspect?
A. Gestational diabetes
B. Placenta previa
C. Preterm labor
D. Preeclampsia
D. Preeclampsia
RATIONALE: Visual disturbances and severe headache are warning
signs of preeclampsia, a serious complication that can progress to
eclampsia.
4. A nurse is assessing a client at 20 weeks of gestation. Where
should the nurse expect to palpate the fundus?
A. At the umbilicus
B. Midway between symphysis and umbilicus
C. At the xiphoid process
D. Just above the symphysis pubis
, A. At the umbilicus
RATIONALE: At 20 weeks of gestation, the fundus is typically palpated
at the level of the umbilicus.
5. A client at 12 weeks of gestation asks when she should expect to
feel fetal movement. Which response by the nurse is most
appropriate?
A. "You should feel movement by 12 weeks."
B. "Most women feel movement between 18 and 20 weeks."
C. "You will feel movement at 24 weeks."
D. "Fetal movement is not felt until the third trimester."
B. "Most women feel movement between 18 and 20 weeks."
RATIONALE: Quickening, the first perception of fetal movement, is
typically felt between 18 and 20 weeks in primigravida clients.
6. A nurse is reinforcing teaching about folic acid supplementation.
Which statement indicates understanding?
A. "I will start taking folic acid after I confirm my pregnancy."
B. "Folic acid helps prevent neural tube defects."
C. "I only need folic acid if I have a family history of birth defects."
D. "Folic acid should be taken only in the third trimester."
B. "Folic acid helps prevent neural tube defects."
RATIONALE: Folic acid is essential for preventing neural tube defects
and should be taken before conception and during early pregnancy.
7. What is the standard prenatal visit schedule for an uncomplicated
pregnancy?
A. Every 4 weeks until 28 weeks, every 2 weeks until 36 weeks, then
weekly
B. Every 2 weeks until 28 weeks, then weekly
C. Every 6 weeks until 32 weeks, then every 2 weeks
D. Monthly until delivery
, A. Every 4 weeks until 28 weeks, every 2 weeks until 36 weeks, then
weekly
RATIONALE: The standard schedule is every 4 weeks until 28 weeks,
every 2 weeks until 36 weeks, and weekly until delivery.
8. A client at 32 weeks of gestation is experiencing preterm labor.
Which medication should the nurse anticipate administering?
A. Misoprostol
B. Poractant alfa
C. Methylergonovine
D. Betamethasone
D. Betamethasone
RATIONALE: Betamethasone is an antenatal corticosteroid
administered to accelerate fetal lung maturity in preterm labor.
9. A client at 8 weeks of gestation reports urinary frequency. Which
response by the nurse is appropriate?
A. "This is a sign of a urinary tract infection."
B. "This is caused by pressure on the bladder from the growing uterus."
C. "You should restrict fluids to prevent this."
D. "This will resolve after 12 weeks."
B. "This is caused by pressure on the bladder from the growing uterus."
RATIONALE: Urinary frequency in early pregnancy is due to increased
blood volume and pressure from the enlarging uterus on the bladder.
10. A nurse is teaching a client about the purpose of a nonstress test
(NST). Which statement indicates understanding?
A. "It measures the amount of amniotic fluid."
B. "It determines the baby's position."
C. "It evaluates fetal heart rate in response to fetal movement."
D. "It assesses uterine contractions."
QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED ANSWERS | 100% CORRECT | GRADE A+
CORE DOMAINS
• Antepartum Care and Fetal Development
• Intrapartum Care and Labor Complications
• Postpartum Assessment and Complications
• Newborn Assessment and Immediate Care
• High-Risk Pregnancy and Obstetric Emergencies
• Maternal-Newborn Pharmacology and Medication Safety
• Patient Education and Health Promotion
• Cultural Competence and Family-Centered Care
• NGN Unfolding Case Studies: Clinical Judgment
INTRODUCTION
This comprehensive examination is designed for practical nursing students
preparing for the ATI PN Maternal-Newborn Nursing Proctored Exam. It
contains verified questions with correct answers and detailed rationales
covering the core domains of maternal-newborn nursing. The examination
mirrors the ATI proctored exam format and emphasizes clinical judgment,
prioritization, medication safety, and family-centered care. Each question is
accompanied by a detailed rationale to reinforce understanding of
maternal-newborn concepts and safe clinical decision-making.
SECTION ONE: QUESTIONS 1–100
1. A client at 10 weeks of gestation reports nausea and vomiting.
Which instruction should the nurse include?
A. Eat large meals to reduce stomach acid.
B. Drink fluids only with meals.
C. Eat small, frequent meals throughout the day.
D. Avoid all carbohydrates.
, C. Eat small, frequent meals throughout the day.
RATIONALE: Nausea and vomiting of pregnancy is best managed with
small, frequent meals to prevent an empty stomach. Dry crackers before
rising may also help.
2. A client at 28 weeks of gestation is Rh-negative with a negative
indirect Coombs test. Which action should the nurse anticipate?
A. Administer Rho(D) immune globulin at 36 weeks.
B. Administer Rho(D) immune globulin at 28 weeks.
C. No intervention is needed.
D. Administer Rho(D) immune globulin within 72 hours after delivery only.
B. Administer Rho(D) immune globulin at 28 weeks.
RATIONALE: Rh-negative clients receive Rho(D) immune globulin at 28
weeks of gestation and within 72 hours after delivery if the newborn is Rh-
positive.
3. A client at 36 weeks of gestation reports visual disturbances and a
severe headache. Which condition should the nurse suspect?
A. Gestational diabetes
B. Placenta previa
C. Preterm labor
D. Preeclampsia
D. Preeclampsia
RATIONALE: Visual disturbances and severe headache are warning
signs of preeclampsia, a serious complication that can progress to
eclampsia.
4. A nurse is assessing a client at 20 weeks of gestation. Where
should the nurse expect to palpate the fundus?
A. At the umbilicus
B. Midway between symphysis and umbilicus
C. At the xiphoid process
D. Just above the symphysis pubis
, A. At the umbilicus
RATIONALE: At 20 weeks of gestation, the fundus is typically palpated
at the level of the umbilicus.
5. A client at 12 weeks of gestation asks when she should expect to
feel fetal movement. Which response by the nurse is most
appropriate?
A. "You should feel movement by 12 weeks."
B. "Most women feel movement between 18 and 20 weeks."
C. "You will feel movement at 24 weeks."
D. "Fetal movement is not felt until the third trimester."
B. "Most women feel movement between 18 and 20 weeks."
RATIONALE: Quickening, the first perception of fetal movement, is
typically felt between 18 and 20 weeks in primigravida clients.
6. A nurse is reinforcing teaching about folic acid supplementation.
Which statement indicates understanding?
A. "I will start taking folic acid after I confirm my pregnancy."
B. "Folic acid helps prevent neural tube defects."
C. "I only need folic acid if I have a family history of birth defects."
D. "Folic acid should be taken only in the third trimester."
B. "Folic acid helps prevent neural tube defects."
RATIONALE: Folic acid is essential for preventing neural tube defects
and should be taken before conception and during early pregnancy.
7. What is the standard prenatal visit schedule for an uncomplicated
pregnancy?
A. Every 4 weeks until 28 weeks, every 2 weeks until 36 weeks, then
weekly
B. Every 2 weeks until 28 weeks, then weekly
C. Every 6 weeks until 32 weeks, then every 2 weeks
D. Monthly until delivery
, A. Every 4 weeks until 28 weeks, every 2 weeks until 36 weeks, then
weekly
RATIONALE: The standard schedule is every 4 weeks until 28 weeks,
every 2 weeks until 36 weeks, and weekly until delivery.
8. A client at 32 weeks of gestation is experiencing preterm labor.
Which medication should the nurse anticipate administering?
A. Misoprostol
B. Poractant alfa
C. Methylergonovine
D. Betamethasone
D. Betamethasone
RATIONALE: Betamethasone is an antenatal corticosteroid
administered to accelerate fetal lung maturity in preterm labor.
9. A client at 8 weeks of gestation reports urinary frequency. Which
response by the nurse is appropriate?
A. "This is a sign of a urinary tract infection."
B. "This is caused by pressure on the bladder from the growing uterus."
C. "You should restrict fluids to prevent this."
D. "This will resolve after 12 weeks."
B. "This is caused by pressure on the bladder from the growing uterus."
RATIONALE: Urinary frequency in early pregnancy is due to increased
blood volume and pressure from the enlarging uterus on the bladder.
10. A nurse is teaching a client about the purpose of a nonstress test
(NST). Which statement indicates understanding?
A. "It measures the amount of amniotic fluid."
B. "It determines the baby's position."
C. "It evaluates fetal heart rate in response to fetal movement."
D. "It assesses uterine contractions."
