NSG6005 ADVANCED PHARMACOLOGY
AND HEALTH ASSESSMENT EXAM 2
SOUTH UNIVERSITY (CORRECT Q & A)
SATISFACTION GUARANTEED
1. A 65-year-old patient presents with a sudden onset of ‘the worst headache of my life.’
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis that must be ruled out immediately?
A. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
B. Migraine headache
C. Cluster headache
D. Tension headache
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: A sudden, severe headache described as the ‘worst headache of
one’s life’ (thunderclap headache) is a classic presentation of a subarachnoid hemorrhage
and is a medical emergency.
2. When evaluating a patient with suspected congestive heart failure, which physical exam
finding has the highest specificity for the diagnosis?
A. Third heart sound (S3 gallop)
B. Pulmonary crackles
,C. Peripheral edema
D. Jugular venous distention
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: An S3 gallop is highly specific for heart failure in older adults,
indicating ventricular volume overload or decreased myocardial compliance.
3. A patient is prescribed a loop diuretic for hypertension and fluid management. Which
electrolyte imbalance is most commonly associated with this drug class?
A. Hypokalemia
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Hypercalcemia
D. Hyponatremia
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: Loop diuretics (like furosemide) inhibit the Na-K-2Cl symporter,
leading to increased excretion of potassium and potential hypokalemia.
4. Which of the following physical exam maneuvers is used to assess for suspected
appendicitis by asking the patient to lift the right leg against resistance?
A. Rovsing’s sign
B. Obturator sign
C. Psoas sign
, D. Murphy’s sign
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: The psoas sign involves pain elicited by extending the right hip
or having the patient flex the right hip against resistance, suggesting irritation of the psoas
muscle by an inflamed appendix.
5. What is the primary mechanism of action of ACE inhibitors in treating heart failure and
hypertension?
A. Inhibiting the conversion of Angiotensin I to Angiotensin II
B. Blocking calcium channels in smooth muscle
C. Blocking beta-adrenergic receptors
D. Increasing sodium excretion in the distal tubule
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: ACE inhibitors prevent the conversion of Angiotensin I to the
potent vasoconstrictor Angiotensin II, thereby reducing peripheral resistance and
aldosterone secretion.
6. A patient with asthma is currently using an Albuterol inhaler as needed. They report using
it daily for symptom control. According to GINA guidelines, what is the next appropriate step
in management?
A. Add a low-dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS)
AND HEALTH ASSESSMENT EXAM 2
SOUTH UNIVERSITY (CORRECT Q & A)
SATISFACTION GUARANTEED
1. A 65-year-old patient presents with a sudden onset of ‘the worst headache of my life.’
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis that must be ruled out immediately?
A. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
B. Migraine headache
C. Cluster headache
D. Tension headache
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: A sudden, severe headache described as the ‘worst headache of
one’s life’ (thunderclap headache) is a classic presentation of a subarachnoid hemorrhage
and is a medical emergency.
2. When evaluating a patient with suspected congestive heart failure, which physical exam
finding has the highest specificity for the diagnosis?
A. Third heart sound (S3 gallop)
B. Pulmonary crackles
,C. Peripheral edema
D. Jugular venous distention
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: An S3 gallop is highly specific for heart failure in older adults,
indicating ventricular volume overload or decreased myocardial compliance.
3. A patient is prescribed a loop diuretic for hypertension and fluid management. Which
electrolyte imbalance is most commonly associated with this drug class?
A. Hypokalemia
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Hypercalcemia
D. Hyponatremia
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: Loop diuretics (like furosemide) inhibit the Na-K-2Cl symporter,
leading to increased excretion of potassium and potential hypokalemia.
4. Which of the following physical exam maneuvers is used to assess for suspected
appendicitis by asking the patient to lift the right leg against resistance?
A. Rovsing’s sign
B. Obturator sign
C. Psoas sign
, D. Murphy’s sign
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: The psoas sign involves pain elicited by extending the right hip
or having the patient flex the right hip against resistance, suggesting irritation of the psoas
muscle by an inflamed appendix.
5. What is the primary mechanism of action of ACE inhibitors in treating heart failure and
hypertension?
A. Inhibiting the conversion of Angiotensin I to Angiotensin II
B. Blocking calcium channels in smooth muscle
C. Blocking beta-adrenergic receptors
D. Increasing sodium excretion in the distal tubule
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: ACE inhibitors prevent the conversion of Angiotensin I to the
potent vasoconstrictor Angiotensin II, thereby reducing peripheral resistance and
aldosterone secretion.
6. A patient with asthma is currently using an Albuterol inhaler as needed. They report using
it daily for symptom control. According to GINA guidelines, what is the next appropriate step
in management?
A. Add a low-dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS)
