NSG6005 ADVANCED PHARMACOLOGY
EXAM 3 SOUTH UNIVERSITY
(CORRECT Q & A) SATISFACTION
GUARANTEED
1. A patient with heart failure is prescribed Lisinopril. Which mechanism of action best
describes how this medication reduces afterload?
A. Blockade of Beta-1 adrenergic receptors in the myocardium
B. Direct antagonism of the Angiotensin II receptor type 1
C. Inhibition of the conversion of Angiotensin I to Angiotensin II
D. Inhibition of the sodium-potassium ATPase pump
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor that prevents the conversion of
Angiotensin I to Angiotensin II, a potent vasoconstrictor, thereby reducing systemic
vascular resistance (afterload).
2. Which of the following laboratory values must be monitored most closely for a patient
initiated on Spironolactone?
A. Serum Potassium
B. Serum Sodium
,C. Serum Calcium
D. Serum Magnesium
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic (aldosterone
antagonist) that poses a significant risk for hyperkalemia, especially in patients with renal
impairment or those taking ACE inhibitors.
3. A 65-year-old patient is taking Warfarin for atrial fibrillation. The nurse practitioner notes
an INR of 5.2 with no signs of bleeding. What is the most appropriate next step?
A. Administer Vitamin K 10mg IV immediately
B. Continue the current dose and recheck in one week
C. Administer Protamine Sulfate
D. Hold the next dose of Warfarin and monitor the patient
Answer: D
Conceptual Explanation: For an INR between 4.5 and 10.0 without clinically significant
bleeding, current guidelines suggest holding one or two doses of Warfarin and reducing the
subsequent maintenance dose.
4. Which beta-blocker is considered ‘cardioselective,’ making it safer for a patient with well-
controlled asthma?
A. Metoprolol
, B. Nadolol
C. Propranolol
D. Carvedilol
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: Metoprolol is a selective Beta-1 blocker. Propranolol and
Nadolol are non-selective, and Carvedilol blocks both alpha and beta receptors, posing a
higher risk of bronchoconstriction.
5. A patient is prescribed Amiodarone for refractory ventricular tachycardia. Which diagnostic
test should be performed at baseline and every 6 months due to potential organ toxicity?
A. Bone Density Scan
B. Complete Blood Count (CBC)
C. Basic Metabolic Panel (BMP)
D. Pulmonary Function Tests (PFTs)
Answer: D
Conceptual Explanation: Amiodarone is associated with serious pulmonary toxicity
(interstitial lung disease). Baseline and periodic PFTs/Chest X-rays are required for early
detection.
6. What is the primary mechanism of action of Ezetimibe?
A. Inhibition of cholesterol absorption at the brush border of the small intestine
EXAM 3 SOUTH UNIVERSITY
(CORRECT Q & A) SATISFACTION
GUARANTEED
1. A patient with heart failure is prescribed Lisinopril. Which mechanism of action best
describes how this medication reduces afterload?
A. Blockade of Beta-1 adrenergic receptors in the myocardium
B. Direct antagonism of the Angiotensin II receptor type 1
C. Inhibition of the conversion of Angiotensin I to Angiotensin II
D. Inhibition of the sodium-potassium ATPase pump
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor that prevents the conversion of
Angiotensin I to Angiotensin II, a potent vasoconstrictor, thereby reducing systemic
vascular resistance (afterload).
2. Which of the following laboratory values must be monitored most closely for a patient
initiated on Spironolactone?
A. Serum Potassium
B. Serum Sodium
,C. Serum Calcium
D. Serum Magnesium
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic (aldosterone
antagonist) that poses a significant risk for hyperkalemia, especially in patients with renal
impairment or those taking ACE inhibitors.
3. A 65-year-old patient is taking Warfarin for atrial fibrillation. The nurse practitioner notes
an INR of 5.2 with no signs of bleeding. What is the most appropriate next step?
A. Administer Vitamin K 10mg IV immediately
B. Continue the current dose and recheck in one week
C. Administer Protamine Sulfate
D. Hold the next dose of Warfarin and monitor the patient
Answer: D
Conceptual Explanation: For an INR between 4.5 and 10.0 without clinically significant
bleeding, current guidelines suggest holding one or two doses of Warfarin and reducing the
subsequent maintenance dose.
4. Which beta-blocker is considered ‘cardioselective,’ making it safer for a patient with well-
controlled asthma?
A. Metoprolol
, B. Nadolol
C. Propranolol
D. Carvedilol
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: Metoprolol is a selective Beta-1 blocker. Propranolol and
Nadolol are non-selective, and Carvedilol blocks both alpha and beta receptors, posing a
higher risk of bronchoconstriction.
5. A patient is prescribed Amiodarone for refractory ventricular tachycardia. Which diagnostic
test should be performed at baseline and every 6 months due to potential organ toxicity?
A. Bone Density Scan
B. Complete Blood Count (CBC)
C. Basic Metabolic Panel (BMP)
D. Pulmonary Function Tests (PFTs)
Answer: D
Conceptual Explanation: Amiodarone is associated with serious pulmonary toxicity
(interstitial lung disease). Baseline and periodic PFTs/Chest X-rays are required for early
detection.
6. What is the primary mechanism of action of Ezetimibe?
A. Inhibition of cholesterol absorption at the brush border of the small intestine
