ATI PN ADULT MEDICAL-
SURGICAL CMS EXAM
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
ANSWERS (VERIFIED
ANSWERS) PLUS RATIONALES
2026 Q&A | INSTANT
DOWNLOAD PDF.
Core Domains
Cardiovascular Disorders
Respiratory Disorders
Endocrine and Metabolic Disorders
Renal and Genitourinary Disorders
Gastrointestinal and Hepatic Disorders
Neurological and Musculoskeletal Disorders
Hematologic and Oncologic Disorders
Perioperative and Emergency Care
Fluid, Electrolyte, and Acid-Base Balance
Infection Control, Safety, and Professional Practice
Introduction
This comprehensive examination assesses the practical nursing
candidate's clinical judgment and application of evidence-based
adult medical-surgical nursing. It evaluates assessment,
prioritization, medication safety, infection control, and
management of acute and chronic conditions. Multiple-choice and
scenario-based questions emphasize real-world decision-making,
critical thinking, and patient safety. Candidates must demonstrate
,the ability to recognize changes in condition, intervene
appropriately, and collaborate within interdisciplinary teams. This
test bank supports exam readiness for the ATI PN Adult Medical-
Surgical CMS Proctored Assessment.
SECTION ONE: QUESTIONS 1–100
1. A postoperative client has a heart rate of 130/min, blood
pressure 88/50 mm Hg, and urine output of 15 mL/hr. Which
complication should the practical nurse suspect?
A. Hypervolemia
B. Hypovolemic shock
C. Septicemia
D. Pulmonary edema
Correct answer: B
RATIONALE: Tachycardia, hypotension, and decreased urine
output indicate inadequate circulating volume and possible
hypovolemic shock.
2. A client is prescribed digoxin. The practical nurse should
withhold the medication and notify the provider if the apical
pulse is below which rate?
A. 100/min
B. 90/min
C. 60/min
D. 50/min
Correct answer: C
RATIONALE: Digoxin slows the heart rate. It is typically
withheld when the apical pulse is below 60/min in adults.
, 3. A client taking warfarin asks about safe pain relief. Which
medication should the practical nurse teach the client to
avoid?
A. Aspirin
B. Acetaminophen
C. Ibuprofen
D. Both A and C
Correct answer: D
RATIONALE: Aspirin and ibuprofen increase bleeding risk when
taken with warfarin. Acetaminophen is generally safer when used
as directed.
4. A client receiving heparin develops bleeding. Which antidote
should the practical nurse anticipate?
A. Vitamin K
B. Calcium gluconate
C. Protamine sulfate
D. Naloxone
Correct answer: C
RATIONALE: Protamine sulfate is the antidote for heparin.
Vitamin K is the antidote for warfarin.
5. A client taking furosemide should have which laboratory
value monitored most closely?
A. Calcium
B. Potassium
C. Sodium
D. Chloride
Correct answer: B
, RATIONALE: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause
hypokalemia, which may lead to dysrhythmias.
6. Which finding indicates a therapeutic response to
spironolactone?
A. Increased urine output and reduced edema
B. Increased potassium excretion
C. Decreased urine output
D. Hypernatremia
Correct answer: A
RATIONALE: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic
that promotes diuresis while retaining potassium.
7. A client with heart failure should be taught to monitor which
daily measurement?
A. Weight
B. Blood glucose
C. Urine specific gravity
D. Pulse oximetry
Correct answer: A
RATIONALE: Daily weight is the most reliable indicator of fluid
retention or loss in heart failure.
8. A client with COPD is prescribed oxygen. Which delivery
method is safest?
A. 100% oxygen via non-rebreather
B. High-flow nasal cannula
C. Simple face mask at 10 L/min
D. Low-flow oxygen via nasal cannula
Correct answer: D
SURGICAL CMS EXAM
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
ANSWERS (VERIFIED
ANSWERS) PLUS RATIONALES
2026 Q&A | INSTANT
DOWNLOAD PDF.
Core Domains
Cardiovascular Disorders
Respiratory Disorders
Endocrine and Metabolic Disorders
Renal and Genitourinary Disorders
Gastrointestinal and Hepatic Disorders
Neurological and Musculoskeletal Disorders
Hematologic and Oncologic Disorders
Perioperative and Emergency Care
Fluid, Electrolyte, and Acid-Base Balance
Infection Control, Safety, and Professional Practice
Introduction
This comprehensive examination assesses the practical nursing
candidate's clinical judgment and application of evidence-based
adult medical-surgical nursing. It evaluates assessment,
prioritization, medication safety, infection control, and
management of acute and chronic conditions. Multiple-choice and
scenario-based questions emphasize real-world decision-making,
critical thinking, and patient safety. Candidates must demonstrate
,the ability to recognize changes in condition, intervene
appropriately, and collaborate within interdisciplinary teams. This
test bank supports exam readiness for the ATI PN Adult Medical-
Surgical CMS Proctored Assessment.
SECTION ONE: QUESTIONS 1–100
1. A postoperative client has a heart rate of 130/min, blood
pressure 88/50 mm Hg, and urine output of 15 mL/hr. Which
complication should the practical nurse suspect?
A. Hypervolemia
B. Hypovolemic shock
C. Septicemia
D. Pulmonary edema
Correct answer: B
RATIONALE: Tachycardia, hypotension, and decreased urine
output indicate inadequate circulating volume and possible
hypovolemic shock.
2. A client is prescribed digoxin. The practical nurse should
withhold the medication and notify the provider if the apical
pulse is below which rate?
A. 100/min
B. 90/min
C. 60/min
D. 50/min
Correct answer: C
RATIONALE: Digoxin slows the heart rate. It is typically
withheld when the apical pulse is below 60/min in adults.
, 3. A client taking warfarin asks about safe pain relief. Which
medication should the practical nurse teach the client to
avoid?
A. Aspirin
B. Acetaminophen
C. Ibuprofen
D. Both A and C
Correct answer: D
RATIONALE: Aspirin and ibuprofen increase bleeding risk when
taken with warfarin. Acetaminophen is generally safer when used
as directed.
4. A client receiving heparin develops bleeding. Which antidote
should the practical nurse anticipate?
A. Vitamin K
B. Calcium gluconate
C. Protamine sulfate
D. Naloxone
Correct answer: C
RATIONALE: Protamine sulfate is the antidote for heparin.
Vitamin K is the antidote for warfarin.
5. A client taking furosemide should have which laboratory
value monitored most closely?
A. Calcium
B. Potassium
C. Sodium
D. Chloride
Correct answer: B
, RATIONALE: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause
hypokalemia, which may lead to dysrhythmias.
6. Which finding indicates a therapeutic response to
spironolactone?
A. Increased urine output and reduced edema
B. Increased potassium excretion
C. Decreased urine output
D. Hypernatremia
Correct answer: A
RATIONALE: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic
that promotes diuresis while retaining potassium.
7. A client with heart failure should be taught to monitor which
daily measurement?
A. Weight
B. Blood glucose
C. Urine specific gravity
D. Pulse oximetry
Correct answer: A
RATIONALE: Daily weight is the most reliable indicator of fluid
retention or loss in heart failure.
8. A client with COPD is prescribed oxygen. Which delivery
method is safest?
A. 100% oxygen via non-rebreather
B. High-flow nasal cannula
C. Simple face mask at 10 L/min
D. Low-flow oxygen via nasal cannula
Correct answer: D
