RN ATI concept-based assessment, proctored
exam for level 1 Test Bank 2022 update
SECTION 1: SAFETY AND INFECTION CONTROL
1. A nurse is admitting a client who has pulmonary tuberculosis. Which of the following
transmission-based precautions should the nurse initiate?
A. Contact precautions
B. Droplet precautions
C. Airborne precautions
D. Protective environment
Rationale: Pulmonary tuberculosis is transmitted by airborne droplets smaller than 5
microns in diameter. Airborne precautions (negative-pressure room, N95 respirator, closed
door) are required to prevent transmission.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who has Clostridium difficile infection and is incontinent of
stool following long-term antibiotic therapy. Which of the following actions should the nurse
take?
A. Place the client on airborne precautions
B. Wear a gown and gloves when providing care
C. Use an alcohol-based hand sanitizer for hand hygiene
D. Place the client in a room with negative air pressure
Rationale: C. difficile requires contact precautions. The nurse should wear a gown and
gloves. Handwashing with soap and water is essential because alcohol-based sanitizers are not
effective against C. difficile spores.
3. A nurse on a pediatric unit is admitting an infant who has pertussis. Which of the following
isolation precautions should the nurse initiate?
A. Contact precautions
B. Droplet precautions
C. Airborne precautions
D. Protective environment
, Rationale: Pertussis is transmitted via droplets larger than 5 microns. Droplet precautions
include a private room and a mask.
4. A nurse is planning care to prevent a catheter-related bloodstream infection for a client
who is receiving IV fluid therapy. Which of the following interventions should the nurse
include in the plan?
A. Perform hand hygiene before touching the IV tubing
B. Change the IV tubing every 72 hours
C. Use hydrogen peroxide to cleanse the IV insertion site
D. Assess the IV insertion site every 12 hours for redness
Rationale: The nurse should perform thorough hand hygiene before touching any part of the
infusion system or the client to reduce the risk of catheter-related bloodstream infections.
5. A nurse is preparing to leave the room of a client who is on isolation precautions. Which of
the following actions should the nurse take when removing a tied surgical mask?
A. Remove the mask by touching the front of the mask
B. Remove the mask by securely holding the ties and moving it away from the face
C. Remove the mask by pulling it down from the front
D. Remove the mask by unfastening the top ties first
Rationale: The nurse should untie the bottom strings first, then the top strings. While
holding the strings, remove the mask from the face. This prevents touching the contaminated
front of the mask.
6. A nurse is preparing to extinguish a small fire in a client's room. Which of the following
actions should the nurse take when using a fire extinguisher?
A. Aim the fire extinguisher at the top of the flames
B. Pump the handles up and down three times
C. Sweep the fire extinguisher in a circular motion
D. Slide the pin on top of the fire extinguisher straight out
Rationale: The nurse should pull the pin to allow use of the fire extinguisher. This is the first
step in the PASS technique (Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep).
,7. A nurse is reviewing a client's new prescriptions. Which of the following abbreviations
should the nurse clarify with the provider?
A. Morphine 2 mg IV every 4 hours PRN
B. Enoxaparin 40 mg SQ QD
C. Lisinopril 10 mg PO daily
D. Acetaminophen 650 mg PO every 6 hours
Rationale: The nurse should clarify this prescription with the provider. The abbreviations
"SQ" and "QD" are considered error-prone and should not be used in documentation.
8. A nurse is preparing to administer a unit of packed red blood cells. Which of the following
actions should the nurse take to adhere to the Joint Commission National Patient Safety
Goals?
A. Verify the client and blood component using a two-person process
B. Administer the blood product within 30 minutes of arrival
C. Infuse the blood product over 2 hours
D. Use a blood administration set for no more than 8 hours
Rationale: The Joint Commission requires a two-person verification process for blood
administration to ensure the correct blood component is given to the correct client.
9. A nurse is assessing a client who is at risk for falls. Which of the following findings should
the nurse identify as a fall risk?
A. The client uses a raised toilet seat
B. The client takes a flaxseed supplement
C. The client looks at the ground while walking
D. The client has a history of urinary frequency
Rationale: A client who has a history of urinary frequency is at risk for a fall due to
frequently getting out of bed at night to go to the bathroom. The nurse should place a
commode next to the client's bed to reduce the risk for injury.
, 10. A nurse enters a client's room and finds the client lying on the floor. Which of the
following actions should the nurse take first?
A. Check the client for injuries
B. Assist the client back to bed
C. Document the incident
D. Notify the provider
Rationale: The first action the nurse should take when using the nursing process is to assess
the client. The nurse should first check the client for injuries and measure vital signs to help
determine physiologic stability.
11. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for enoxaparin. Which of the
following sites should the nurse select for administration?
A. Deltoid muscle
B. Vastus lateralis
C. Anterolateral abdomen
D. Ventrogluteal site
Rationale: Enoxaparin, a low molecular weight heparin, should be administered
subcutaneously in the anterolateral aspect of the abdomen to promote absorption. The nurse
should avoid injecting within 5 cm (2 in) of the umbilicus.
12. A nurse is preparing to administer ophthalmic solutions to a client. Which of the following
positions should the nurse place the client in?
A. Prone
B. Supine
C. Sims' position
D. Trendelenburg
Rationale: The nurse should have the client lie supine when administering ophthalmic
solutions. This position is comfortable and allows easy access to the eye while minimizing the
risk of the medication escaping through the tear duct.
exam for level 1 Test Bank 2022 update
SECTION 1: SAFETY AND INFECTION CONTROL
1. A nurse is admitting a client who has pulmonary tuberculosis. Which of the following
transmission-based precautions should the nurse initiate?
A. Contact precautions
B. Droplet precautions
C. Airborne precautions
D. Protective environment
Rationale: Pulmonary tuberculosis is transmitted by airborne droplets smaller than 5
microns in diameter. Airborne precautions (negative-pressure room, N95 respirator, closed
door) are required to prevent transmission.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who has Clostridium difficile infection and is incontinent of
stool following long-term antibiotic therapy. Which of the following actions should the nurse
take?
A. Place the client on airborne precautions
B. Wear a gown and gloves when providing care
C. Use an alcohol-based hand sanitizer for hand hygiene
D. Place the client in a room with negative air pressure
Rationale: C. difficile requires contact precautions. The nurse should wear a gown and
gloves. Handwashing with soap and water is essential because alcohol-based sanitizers are not
effective against C. difficile spores.
3. A nurse on a pediatric unit is admitting an infant who has pertussis. Which of the following
isolation precautions should the nurse initiate?
A. Contact precautions
B. Droplet precautions
C. Airborne precautions
D. Protective environment
, Rationale: Pertussis is transmitted via droplets larger than 5 microns. Droplet precautions
include a private room and a mask.
4. A nurse is planning care to prevent a catheter-related bloodstream infection for a client
who is receiving IV fluid therapy. Which of the following interventions should the nurse
include in the plan?
A. Perform hand hygiene before touching the IV tubing
B. Change the IV tubing every 72 hours
C. Use hydrogen peroxide to cleanse the IV insertion site
D. Assess the IV insertion site every 12 hours for redness
Rationale: The nurse should perform thorough hand hygiene before touching any part of the
infusion system or the client to reduce the risk of catheter-related bloodstream infections.
5. A nurse is preparing to leave the room of a client who is on isolation precautions. Which of
the following actions should the nurse take when removing a tied surgical mask?
A. Remove the mask by touching the front of the mask
B. Remove the mask by securely holding the ties and moving it away from the face
C. Remove the mask by pulling it down from the front
D. Remove the mask by unfastening the top ties first
Rationale: The nurse should untie the bottom strings first, then the top strings. While
holding the strings, remove the mask from the face. This prevents touching the contaminated
front of the mask.
6. A nurse is preparing to extinguish a small fire in a client's room. Which of the following
actions should the nurse take when using a fire extinguisher?
A. Aim the fire extinguisher at the top of the flames
B. Pump the handles up and down three times
C. Sweep the fire extinguisher in a circular motion
D. Slide the pin on top of the fire extinguisher straight out
Rationale: The nurse should pull the pin to allow use of the fire extinguisher. This is the first
step in the PASS technique (Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep).
,7. A nurse is reviewing a client's new prescriptions. Which of the following abbreviations
should the nurse clarify with the provider?
A. Morphine 2 mg IV every 4 hours PRN
B. Enoxaparin 40 mg SQ QD
C. Lisinopril 10 mg PO daily
D. Acetaminophen 650 mg PO every 6 hours
Rationale: The nurse should clarify this prescription with the provider. The abbreviations
"SQ" and "QD" are considered error-prone and should not be used in documentation.
8. A nurse is preparing to administer a unit of packed red blood cells. Which of the following
actions should the nurse take to adhere to the Joint Commission National Patient Safety
Goals?
A. Verify the client and blood component using a two-person process
B. Administer the blood product within 30 minutes of arrival
C. Infuse the blood product over 2 hours
D. Use a blood administration set for no more than 8 hours
Rationale: The Joint Commission requires a two-person verification process for blood
administration to ensure the correct blood component is given to the correct client.
9. A nurse is assessing a client who is at risk for falls. Which of the following findings should
the nurse identify as a fall risk?
A. The client uses a raised toilet seat
B. The client takes a flaxseed supplement
C. The client looks at the ground while walking
D. The client has a history of urinary frequency
Rationale: A client who has a history of urinary frequency is at risk for a fall due to
frequently getting out of bed at night to go to the bathroom. The nurse should place a
commode next to the client's bed to reduce the risk for injury.
, 10. A nurse enters a client's room and finds the client lying on the floor. Which of the
following actions should the nurse take first?
A. Check the client for injuries
B. Assist the client back to bed
C. Document the incident
D. Notify the provider
Rationale: The first action the nurse should take when using the nursing process is to assess
the client. The nurse should first check the client for injuries and measure vital signs to help
determine physiologic stability.
11. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for enoxaparin. Which of the
following sites should the nurse select for administration?
A. Deltoid muscle
B. Vastus lateralis
C. Anterolateral abdomen
D. Ventrogluteal site
Rationale: Enoxaparin, a low molecular weight heparin, should be administered
subcutaneously in the anterolateral aspect of the abdomen to promote absorption. The nurse
should avoid injecting within 5 cm (2 in) of the umbilicus.
12. A nurse is preparing to administer ophthalmic solutions to a client. Which of the following
positions should the nurse place the client in?
A. Prone
B. Supine
C. Sims' position
D. Trendelenburg
Rationale: The nurse should have the client lie supine when administering ophthalmic
solutions. This position is comfortable and allows easy access to the eye while minimizing the
risk of the medication escaping through the tear duct.
