ExCPT Pharmacy Technician Certification
Examination 2026–2027 | Comprehensive
Question Practice Tes
Section 1: Federal and State Pharmacy Law (Questions 1–20)
1. Which federal law established the requirement for a "child-resistant" cap on prescription
medication containers?
A) The Durham-Humphrey Amendment
B) The Kefauver-Harris Amendment
C) The Poison Prevention Packaging Act
D) The Controlled Substances Act
Correct Answer: C) The Poison Prevention Packaging Act
Rationale: The Poison Prevention Packaging Act of 1970 requires most prescription
medications to be dispensed in child-resistant packaging. The Durham-Humphrey Amendment
distinguished between legend and OTC drugs. The Kefauver-Harris Amendment required proof
of efficacy and safety. The Controlled Substances Act established the scheduling system for
controlled drugs.
2. A pharmacy technician receives a prescription for a Schedule II controlled substance. Which
of the following is true regarding its handling?
A) It can be refilled up to five times within six months.
B) It requires a new, written prescription for each fill, and no refills are allowed.
C) It can be called in by a nurse in an emergency.
D) It can be transferred to another pharmacy for refill purposes.
Correct Answer: B) It requires a new, written prescription for each fill, and no refills are
allowed.
Rationale: Schedule II controlled substances have the highest abuse potential and are
strictly regulated. Federal law prohibits refills on Schedule II prescriptions. A new prescription is
required for each fill. While emergency oral prescriptions are allowed under strict conditions, a
nurse cannot call one in. Schedule II prescriptions cannot be transferred for refill.
3. Which of the following is a requirement of the Health Insurance Portability and
Accountability Act (HIPAA)?
A) Pharmacies must provide a Notice of Privacy Practices to all patients.
B) Pharmacies must report all medication errors to the FDA.
,C) Pharmacies must maintain a perpetual inventory of all antibiotics.
D) Pharmacies must counsel every patient on every new prescription.
Correct Answer: A) Pharmacies must provide a Notice of Privacy Practices to all patients.
Rationale: HIPAA's Privacy Rule requires covered entities, including pharmacies, to provide
patients with a Notice of Privacy Practices that explains how their protected health information
(PHI) may be used and disclosed. Reporting medication errors to the FDA is voluntary
(MedWatch). Perpetual inventories are required for Schedule II drugs, not antibiotics.
Counseling requirements are mandated by state law, not HIPAA.
4. A prescription for a Schedule III medication is written with "refills: 3" on the date of
issuance. What is the maximum number of times this prescription can be refilled?
A) 0
B) 3
C) 5
D) 6
Correct Answer: B) 3
Rationale: Schedule III and IV medications may be refilled up to five times within a six-
month period from the date the prescription was issued. The prescriber specified only 3 refills,
so the pharmacy cannot exceed that number, even though federal law allows up to 5.
5. Which of the following medications requires a "Black Box" warning, the most serious
warning issued by the FDA?
A) Amoxicillin
B) Lisinopril
C) Warfarin
D) Acetaminophen
Correct Answer: C) Warfarin
Rationale: Warfarin carries a Black Box warning for an increased risk of major or fatal
bleeding. Amoxicillin, lisinopril, and acetaminophen do not carry Black Box warnings, though
acetaminophen has a prominent warning about hepatotoxicity.
6. The DEA form used to report the theft or significant loss of controlled substances is:
A) DEA Form 222
B) DEA Form 106
C) DEA Form 41
D) DEA Form 224
, Correct Answer: B) DEA Form 106
Rationale: DEA Form 106 is used to report theft or significant loss of controlled substances.
DEA Form 222 is used to order Schedule I and II controlled substances. DEA Form 41 is used to
document the destruction of controlled substances. DEA Form 224 is the application for a new
DEA registration.
7. Which of the following is an example of a "legend" drug?
A) Ibuprofen 200 mg tablets
B) Diphenhydramine 25 mg capsules
C) Atorvastatin 20 mg tablets
D) Loratadine 10 mg tablets
Correct Answer: C) Atorvastatin 20 mg tablets
Rationale: A "legend" drug is a prescription medication that is required by federal law to
bear the legend, "Caution: Federal law prohibits dispensing without prescription." Atorvastatin
is a prescription-only medication. The other options are available over-the-counter (OTC).
8. A pharmacy technician is asked to transfer a prescription for a Schedule V controlled
substance to another pharmacy. Which of the following is true?
A) Schedule V prescriptions cannot be transferred.
B) Schedule V prescriptions can only be transferred once.
C) Schedule V prescriptions can be transferred up to three times.
D) Schedule V prescriptions can be transferred up to five times.
Correct Answer: B) Schedule V prescriptions can only be transferred once.
Rationale: Federal law allows the transfer of Schedule III, IV, and V prescriptions between
pharmacies, but only one transfer is permitted. The prescription can be transferred for the
purpose of refill dispensing. Schedule II prescriptions cannot be transferred.
9. The Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (OBRA '90) requires pharmacists to:
A) Offer to counsel Medicaid patients on new prescriptions.
B) Provide a 10% discount to all senior citizens.
C) Maintain a perpetual inventory of all controlled substances.
D) Dispense generic drugs whenever available.
Correct Answer: A) Offer to counsel Medicaid patients on new prescriptions.
Rationale: OBRA '90 established mandatory patient counseling requirements for
pharmacists for Medicaid patients. It also established prospective drug utilization review (DUR)
requirements. It does not mandate discounts or generic substitution (which is governed by state
law) or perpetual inventories (which are required for Schedule II drugs by the DEA).
, 10. Which of the following is a valid DEA number?
A) AB1234567
B) AB1234563
C) AB123456
D) AB12345678
Correct Answer: B) AB1234563
Rationale: A valid DEA number follows a specific format: two letters, six digits, and one
check digit. The check digit is calculated by adding the 1st, 3rd, and 5th digits, adding that to
twice the sum of the 2nd, 4th, and 6th digits. The total's last digit must equal the check digit.
For AB123456: (1+3+5) + 2(2+4+6) = 9 + 2(12) = 9 + 24 = 33. The check digit is 3. So AB1234563
is valid.
11. A prescription is written for "Amoxicillin 500 mg PO TID x 10 days." What does "TID"
mean?
A) Twice a day
B) Three times a day
C) Four times a day
D) Every other day
Correct Answer: B) Three times a day
Rationale: "TID" is an abbreviation for "ter in die," which is Latin for "three times a day." BID
means twice a day. QID means four times a day. QOD means every other day.
12. Which of the following is NOT a requirement for a valid prescription?
A) Patient's full name
B) Prescriber's DEA number
C) Patient's diagnosis
D) Drug name, strength, and quantity
Correct Answer: C) Patient's diagnosis
Rationale: While a diagnosis may be included, especially for prior authorizations, it is not a
required element for a valid prescription. A valid prescription must include the patient's name,
the drug name, strength, dosage form, quantity, directions for use, prescriber's name, address,
and DEA number, and the date of issuance.
13. The FDA's MedWatch program is used for:
A) Ordering controlled substances
B) Reporting adverse drug reactions and medication errors
Examination 2026–2027 | Comprehensive
Question Practice Tes
Section 1: Federal and State Pharmacy Law (Questions 1–20)
1. Which federal law established the requirement for a "child-resistant" cap on prescription
medication containers?
A) The Durham-Humphrey Amendment
B) The Kefauver-Harris Amendment
C) The Poison Prevention Packaging Act
D) The Controlled Substances Act
Correct Answer: C) The Poison Prevention Packaging Act
Rationale: The Poison Prevention Packaging Act of 1970 requires most prescription
medications to be dispensed in child-resistant packaging. The Durham-Humphrey Amendment
distinguished between legend and OTC drugs. The Kefauver-Harris Amendment required proof
of efficacy and safety. The Controlled Substances Act established the scheduling system for
controlled drugs.
2. A pharmacy technician receives a prescription for a Schedule II controlled substance. Which
of the following is true regarding its handling?
A) It can be refilled up to five times within six months.
B) It requires a new, written prescription for each fill, and no refills are allowed.
C) It can be called in by a nurse in an emergency.
D) It can be transferred to another pharmacy for refill purposes.
Correct Answer: B) It requires a new, written prescription for each fill, and no refills are
allowed.
Rationale: Schedule II controlled substances have the highest abuse potential and are
strictly regulated. Federal law prohibits refills on Schedule II prescriptions. A new prescription is
required for each fill. While emergency oral prescriptions are allowed under strict conditions, a
nurse cannot call one in. Schedule II prescriptions cannot be transferred for refill.
3. Which of the following is a requirement of the Health Insurance Portability and
Accountability Act (HIPAA)?
A) Pharmacies must provide a Notice of Privacy Practices to all patients.
B) Pharmacies must report all medication errors to the FDA.
,C) Pharmacies must maintain a perpetual inventory of all antibiotics.
D) Pharmacies must counsel every patient on every new prescription.
Correct Answer: A) Pharmacies must provide a Notice of Privacy Practices to all patients.
Rationale: HIPAA's Privacy Rule requires covered entities, including pharmacies, to provide
patients with a Notice of Privacy Practices that explains how their protected health information
(PHI) may be used and disclosed. Reporting medication errors to the FDA is voluntary
(MedWatch). Perpetual inventories are required for Schedule II drugs, not antibiotics.
Counseling requirements are mandated by state law, not HIPAA.
4. A prescription for a Schedule III medication is written with "refills: 3" on the date of
issuance. What is the maximum number of times this prescription can be refilled?
A) 0
B) 3
C) 5
D) 6
Correct Answer: B) 3
Rationale: Schedule III and IV medications may be refilled up to five times within a six-
month period from the date the prescription was issued. The prescriber specified only 3 refills,
so the pharmacy cannot exceed that number, even though federal law allows up to 5.
5. Which of the following medications requires a "Black Box" warning, the most serious
warning issued by the FDA?
A) Amoxicillin
B) Lisinopril
C) Warfarin
D) Acetaminophen
Correct Answer: C) Warfarin
Rationale: Warfarin carries a Black Box warning for an increased risk of major or fatal
bleeding. Amoxicillin, lisinopril, and acetaminophen do not carry Black Box warnings, though
acetaminophen has a prominent warning about hepatotoxicity.
6. The DEA form used to report the theft or significant loss of controlled substances is:
A) DEA Form 222
B) DEA Form 106
C) DEA Form 41
D) DEA Form 224
, Correct Answer: B) DEA Form 106
Rationale: DEA Form 106 is used to report theft or significant loss of controlled substances.
DEA Form 222 is used to order Schedule I and II controlled substances. DEA Form 41 is used to
document the destruction of controlled substances. DEA Form 224 is the application for a new
DEA registration.
7. Which of the following is an example of a "legend" drug?
A) Ibuprofen 200 mg tablets
B) Diphenhydramine 25 mg capsules
C) Atorvastatin 20 mg tablets
D) Loratadine 10 mg tablets
Correct Answer: C) Atorvastatin 20 mg tablets
Rationale: A "legend" drug is a prescription medication that is required by federal law to
bear the legend, "Caution: Federal law prohibits dispensing without prescription." Atorvastatin
is a prescription-only medication. The other options are available over-the-counter (OTC).
8. A pharmacy technician is asked to transfer a prescription for a Schedule V controlled
substance to another pharmacy. Which of the following is true?
A) Schedule V prescriptions cannot be transferred.
B) Schedule V prescriptions can only be transferred once.
C) Schedule V prescriptions can be transferred up to three times.
D) Schedule V prescriptions can be transferred up to five times.
Correct Answer: B) Schedule V prescriptions can only be transferred once.
Rationale: Federal law allows the transfer of Schedule III, IV, and V prescriptions between
pharmacies, but only one transfer is permitted. The prescription can be transferred for the
purpose of refill dispensing. Schedule II prescriptions cannot be transferred.
9. The Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (OBRA '90) requires pharmacists to:
A) Offer to counsel Medicaid patients on new prescriptions.
B) Provide a 10% discount to all senior citizens.
C) Maintain a perpetual inventory of all controlled substances.
D) Dispense generic drugs whenever available.
Correct Answer: A) Offer to counsel Medicaid patients on new prescriptions.
Rationale: OBRA '90 established mandatory patient counseling requirements for
pharmacists for Medicaid patients. It also established prospective drug utilization review (DUR)
requirements. It does not mandate discounts or generic substitution (which is governed by state
law) or perpetual inventories (which are required for Schedule II drugs by the DEA).
, 10. Which of the following is a valid DEA number?
A) AB1234567
B) AB1234563
C) AB123456
D) AB12345678
Correct Answer: B) AB1234563
Rationale: A valid DEA number follows a specific format: two letters, six digits, and one
check digit. The check digit is calculated by adding the 1st, 3rd, and 5th digits, adding that to
twice the sum of the 2nd, 4th, and 6th digits. The total's last digit must equal the check digit.
For AB123456: (1+3+5) + 2(2+4+6) = 9 + 2(12) = 9 + 24 = 33. The check digit is 3. So AB1234563
is valid.
11. A prescription is written for "Amoxicillin 500 mg PO TID x 10 days." What does "TID"
mean?
A) Twice a day
B) Three times a day
C) Four times a day
D) Every other day
Correct Answer: B) Three times a day
Rationale: "TID" is an abbreviation for "ter in die," which is Latin for "three times a day." BID
means twice a day. QID means four times a day. QOD means every other day.
12. Which of the following is NOT a requirement for a valid prescription?
A) Patient's full name
B) Prescriber's DEA number
C) Patient's diagnosis
D) Drug name, strength, and quantity
Correct Answer: C) Patient's diagnosis
Rationale: While a diagnosis may be included, especially for prior authorizations, it is not a
required element for a valid prescription. A valid prescription must include the patient's name,
the drug name, strength, dosage form, quantity, directions for use, prescriber's name, address,
and DEA number, and the date of issuance.
13. The FDA's MedWatch program is used for:
A) Ordering controlled substances
B) Reporting adverse drug reactions and medication errors
