WCU PATHOPHYSIOLOGY 370 FINAL ACTUAL EXAM QUESTIONS
WITH DETAILED ANSWERS
Question 1.
Narcotic administration be administered carefully tients with acute related to potential a.
respiratory depression. b. narcotic dependency. c. sphincter of Oddi tion. d. allergic
reaction.
Correct Answer: should c. sphincter of Oddi dysfunction in pa-pancreatitis for
dysfunc-
Question 2.
A patient is admitted to the hospital with left-sided heart failure. Which clinical
manifestation would the nurse expect the client to exhibit? (Select all that apply.) a. Cough
b. Dyspnea c. Bradypnea d. Crackles in lungs e. Peripheral edema
Correct Answer: a. Cough b. Dyspnea d. Crackles in lungs
Question 3.
Which offers the best prognosis for the cure of cancer? a. Surgery b. Radiation c. Early
detection d. Chemotherapeutic agents
Correct Answer: c. Early detection Early detection of cancer, while it remains
localized, is associated with the best prognosis for a cure. The majority of
patients with solid tumors are treated surgically, which can be curative in some
localized cancers. Ionizing radiation is used for two principal reasons: to kill
tumor cells that are not resectable because they are located in a vital or
inaccessible area, and to kill tumor cells that may have escaped the surgeon's
knife and remain undetected in the local area. Chemotherapeutic agents are not
selective for tumor cells, and a certain amount of normal cell death also occurs.
Question 4.
A heart that has to er in order to effectively late blood is likely which type of cellular tion?
a. Atrophy b. Metaplasia c. Hypertrophy d. Hyperplasia
Correct Answer: pump hard- c. Hypertrophy circuto undergo adapta-
Question 5.
A characteristic of benign prostatic hypertrophy includes which of the following? (Select all
that apply.) a. Urgency b. Hesitancy c. Low back pain d. Weak urine flow e. Incomplete
bladder empty-ing
Correct Answer: b. Hesitancy d. Weak urine flow e. Incomplete bladder emptying
,Question 6.
What are the criteria for diagnosing rheumatoid arthritis? (Select all that apply.) a.
Simultaneous symmetric swelling of joints b. Soft-tissue swelling of at least three joints c.
Subcutaneous rheumatoid nodules d. Swelling of at least one wrist joint e. Morning
stiffness in joints
Correct Answer: a. Simultaneous symmetric swelling of joints b. Soft-tissue
swelling of at least three joints c. Subcutaneous rheumatoid nodules e. Morning
stiffness in joints
Question 7.
Atrial fibrillation is best described as when a. The P wave precedes, follows, or is buried in
the QRS complex b. Disorganized and irregular atrial waves are accompanied by an
irregular ventricular rate c. An atrial rate of 240 to 350 beats/min in a sawtooth pattern of
atrial depolarization is seen d. P waves occurs earlier than normal, preceded by a P wave
with a normal QRS configuration
Correct Answer: b. Disorganized and irregular atrial waves are accompanied by
an irregular ventricular rate - Atrial fibrillation is described as disorganized and
irregular atrial waves accompanied by an irregular ventricular rate. - Escape
rhythms can present with a P wave that precedes, follows, or is buried in the
QRS complex. - Atrial flutter is typically manifested by a rapid atrial rate of 240
to 350 beats/min and a characteristic saw-tooth pattern of atrial
depolarizations. - Premature atrial complexes (PAC) are characterized by P
waves that occur earlier than normal, preceded by a P wave with a normal QRS
configuration.
Question 8.
Cardiac output is both a. Mean arterial pressure and systemic vascular tance (SVR) b.
Systemic vascular (SVR) and pulse pressure c. Pulse pressure terial pressure (MAP) d.
Stroke volume and
Correct Answer: the product of d. Stroke volume and heart rate (MAP) resis-
resistance and mean ar- heart rate
Question 9.
Which statement is true regarding rheumatoid arthritis? a. It is a localized disease. b. Its
prevalence is affected by climate. c. It affects men three times more than women. d. The
majority of the patients test positive for rheumatoid factor.
Correct Answer: d. The majority of the patients test positive for rheumatoid
factor.
,Question 10.
The study of specific istics and functions organism and its a. Psychiatry b. Physiology c.
Homeostasis d. Pathophysiology
Correct Answer: character- b. Physiology of a living parts is called
Question 11.
Which statement is true regarding cystic fibrosis? a. It is autosomal-dominant. b. It affects
endocrine glands. c. It is common in African Americans. d. It is the most common genetic
disease in the United States.
Correct Answer: d. It is the most common genetic disease in the United States.
Question 12.
Which cell is from myeloid lineage? (Select all that apply.) a. B cells b. Platelets c.
Monocytes d. Natural killer cells e. Granulocytes
Correct Answer: b. Platelets c. Monocytes e. Granulocytes - Platelets,
monocytes, and granulocytes are from myeloid lineage - B cells and natural
killer cells are lymphoid
Question 13.
Which statement is true regarding cancer? (Select all that apply.) a. The greater the
undifferentiated cell count, the more aggressive the cancer. b. Malignant tumors have the
potential to kill the host. c. Benign tumors grow rapidly than malignant ones. d. Anaplasia
means more differentiated cells. e. Metastasis means less differentiated cells.
Correct Answer: a. The greater the undifferentiated cell count, the more
aggressive the cancer. b. Malignant tumors have the potential to kill the host.
The greater the degree of anaplasia, the more aggressive the malignant tumor.
Malignant tumors, if left untreated, have the potential to kill. Benign tumors
often grow slowly than malignant ones. Anaplasia is a lack of cell
differentiation. Metastasis means the invasion of cancer to distant sites.
Question 14.
Which is a pathophysiologic change that is consistent with Alzheimer disease? (Select all
that apply) a. Amyloid plaques b. Epileptogenic focus c. Focal cerebral infarct d.
Neurofibrillary tangles e. Abnormal serotonin system
Correct Answer: a. Amyloid plaques d. Neurofibrillary tangles Amyloid plaques
and neurofibrillary tangles occur in the brains of Alzheimer patients and are
found at autopsy. Neural thread proteins (tau protein) have a normal function
and stabilize microtubules. In Alzheimer disease, they are chemically altered
and twist into paired helical filaments known as neurofibrillary tangles.
Epileptogenic focus is associated with seizure disorder. Focal cerebral infarct is
a stroke occurring in a localized area of the brain. Abnormalities in the
, cholinergic system are associated with Alzheimer disease; serotonin
abnormalities are found in depression.
Question 15.
Which statement regarding chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) is a true statement? a. It is not
seen in children. b. It represents 30% of all cases of leukemia. c. The average age of onset
is older than 70 years. d. Affected persons carry the Philadelphia chromosome.
Correct Answer: d. Affected persons carry the Philadelphia chromosome.
Philadelphia chromosome occurs in this leukemia. CML occurs occasionally in
children and adolescents. CML represents approximately 15% of all cases of
leukemia in the US. The average age of onset is between 40-50 years.
Question 16.
Which term is used an excess of red blood a. Anemia b. Polycythemia c. Pancytopenia d.
Granulocytopenia
Correct Answer: to describe b. Polycythemia cells? - Polycythemia is an excess
of red blood cells. - Anemia is a deficiency of red blood cells. - Pancytopenia is a
decrease in red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. - Granulocytopenia
is a decrease in platelets
Question 17.
It is true that acute lymphoid leukemia (ALL) is a. Incurable b. More curable in adults c.
Primarily diagnosed in children d. Generally seen in adults old-er than 70 years
Correct Answer: c. Primarily diagnosed in children ALL is primarily a disorder
occurring in children. ALL is highly curable in children, less so in adults. Peak
incidence is between ages 3-7 years of age. A second rise occurs in middle age
Question 18.
An enlarged thyroid duces a colloid goiter a. Lack of iodine prevents mation of
thyroid-stimulating hormone without and T3 production b. Lack of iodine prevents and T3
but without thyroglobulin formation c. Excessive iodine thyroid-stimulating T4, and T3
formation d. Dietary iodine and replaced with
Correct Answer: gland pro- b. Lack of iodine prevents T4 and T3 but without
stopping when thyroglobulin formation for- stopping T4 T4 stopping suppresses
hormone, is insufficient iodized salt
Question 19.
Which is a modifiable risk factor for prevention of atherosclerosis? a. Smoking b. Genetics
c. Gender d. Age
Correct Answer: a. Smoking
WITH DETAILED ANSWERS
Question 1.
Narcotic administration be administered carefully tients with acute related to potential a.
respiratory depression. b. narcotic dependency. c. sphincter of Oddi tion. d. allergic
reaction.
Correct Answer: should c. sphincter of Oddi dysfunction in pa-pancreatitis for
dysfunc-
Question 2.
A patient is admitted to the hospital with left-sided heart failure. Which clinical
manifestation would the nurse expect the client to exhibit? (Select all that apply.) a. Cough
b. Dyspnea c. Bradypnea d. Crackles in lungs e. Peripheral edema
Correct Answer: a. Cough b. Dyspnea d. Crackles in lungs
Question 3.
Which offers the best prognosis for the cure of cancer? a. Surgery b. Radiation c. Early
detection d. Chemotherapeutic agents
Correct Answer: c. Early detection Early detection of cancer, while it remains
localized, is associated with the best prognosis for a cure. The majority of
patients with solid tumors are treated surgically, which can be curative in some
localized cancers. Ionizing radiation is used for two principal reasons: to kill
tumor cells that are not resectable because they are located in a vital or
inaccessible area, and to kill tumor cells that may have escaped the surgeon's
knife and remain undetected in the local area. Chemotherapeutic agents are not
selective for tumor cells, and a certain amount of normal cell death also occurs.
Question 4.
A heart that has to er in order to effectively late blood is likely which type of cellular tion?
a. Atrophy b. Metaplasia c. Hypertrophy d. Hyperplasia
Correct Answer: pump hard- c. Hypertrophy circuto undergo adapta-
Question 5.
A characteristic of benign prostatic hypertrophy includes which of the following? (Select all
that apply.) a. Urgency b. Hesitancy c. Low back pain d. Weak urine flow e. Incomplete
bladder empty-ing
Correct Answer: b. Hesitancy d. Weak urine flow e. Incomplete bladder emptying
,Question 6.
What are the criteria for diagnosing rheumatoid arthritis? (Select all that apply.) a.
Simultaneous symmetric swelling of joints b. Soft-tissue swelling of at least three joints c.
Subcutaneous rheumatoid nodules d. Swelling of at least one wrist joint e. Morning
stiffness in joints
Correct Answer: a. Simultaneous symmetric swelling of joints b. Soft-tissue
swelling of at least three joints c. Subcutaneous rheumatoid nodules e. Morning
stiffness in joints
Question 7.
Atrial fibrillation is best described as when a. The P wave precedes, follows, or is buried in
the QRS complex b. Disorganized and irregular atrial waves are accompanied by an
irregular ventricular rate c. An atrial rate of 240 to 350 beats/min in a sawtooth pattern of
atrial depolarization is seen d. P waves occurs earlier than normal, preceded by a P wave
with a normal QRS configuration
Correct Answer: b. Disorganized and irregular atrial waves are accompanied by
an irregular ventricular rate - Atrial fibrillation is described as disorganized and
irregular atrial waves accompanied by an irregular ventricular rate. - Escape
rhythms can present with a P wave that precedes, follows, or is buried in the
QRS complex. - Atrial flutter is typically manifested by a rapid atrial rate of 240
to 350 beats/min and a characteristic saw-tooth pattern of atrial
depolarizations. - Premature atrial complexes (PAC) are characterized by P
waves that occur earlier than normal, preceded by a P wave with a normal QRS
configuration.
Question 8.
Cardiac output is both a. Mean arterial pressure and systemic vascular tance (SVR) b.
Systemic vascular (SVR) and pulse pressure c. Pulse pressure terial pressure (MAP) d.
Stroke volume and
Correct Answer: the product of d. Stroke volume and heart rate (MAP) resis-
resistance and mean ar- heart rate
Question 9.
Which statement is true regarding rheumatoid arthritis? a. It is a localized disease. b. Its
prevalence is affected by climate. c. It affects men three times more than women. d. The
majority of the patients test positive for rheumatoid factor.
Correct Answer: d. The majority of the patients test positive for rheumatoid
factor.
,Question 10.
The study of specific istics and functions organism and its a. Psychiatry b. Physiology c.
Homeostasis d. Pathophysiology
Correct Answer: character- b. Physiology of a living parts is called
Question 11.
Which statement is true regarding cystic fibrosis? a. It is autosomal-dominant. b. It affects
endocrine glands. c. It is common in African Americans. d. It is the most common genetic
disease in the United States.
Correct Answer: d. It is the most common genetic disease in the United States.
Question 12.
Which cell is from myeloid lineage? (Select all that apply.) a. B cells b. Platelets c.
Monocytes d. Natural killer cells e. Granulocytes
Correct Answer: b. Platelets c. Monocytes e. Granulocytes - Platelets,
monocytes, and granulocytes are from myeloid lineage - B cells and natural
killer cells are lymphoid
Question 13.
Which statement is true regarding cancer? (Select all that apply.) a. The greater the
undifferentiated cell count, the more aggressive the cancer. b. Malignant tumors have the
potential to kill the host. c. Benign tumors grow rapidly than malignant ones. d. Anaplasia
means more differentiated cells. e. Metastasis means less differentiated cells.
Correct Answer: a. The greater the undifferentiated cell count, the more
aggressive the cancer. b. Malignant tumors have the potential to kill the host.
The greater the degree of anaplasia, the more aggressive the malignant tumor.
Malignant tumors, if left untreated, have the potential to kill. Benign tumors
often grow slowly than malignant ones. Anaplasia is a lack of cell
differentiation. Metastasis means the invasion of cancer to distant sites.
Question 14.
Which is a pathophysiologic change that is consistent with Alzheimer disease? (Select all
that apply) a. Amyloid plaques b. Epileptogenic focus c. Focal cerebral infarct d.
Neurofibrillary tangles e. Abnormal serotonin system
Correct Answer: a. Amyloid plaques d. Neurofibrillary tangles Amyloid plaques
and neurofibrillary tangles occur in the brains of Alzheimer patients and are
found at autopsy. Neural thread proteins (tau protein) have a normal function
and stabilize microtubules. In Alzheimer disease, they are chemically altered
and twist into paired helical filaments known as neurofibrillary tangles.
Epileptogenic focus is associated with seizure disorder. Focal cerebral infarct is
a stroke occurring in a localized area of the brain. Abnormalities in the
, cholinergic system are associated with Alzheimer disease; serotonin
abnormalities are found in depression.
Question 15.
Which statement regarding chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) is a true statement? a. It is not
seen in children. b. It represents 30% of all cases of leukemia. c. The average age of onset
is older than 70 years. d. Affected persons carry the Philadelphia chromosome.
Correct Answer: d. Affected persons carry the Philadelphia chromosome.
Philadelphia chromosome occurs in this leukemia. CML occurs occasionally in
children and adolescents. CML represents approximately 15% of all cases of
leukemia in the US. The average age of onset is between 40-50 years.
Question 16.
Which term is used an excess of red blood a. Anemia b. Polycythemia c. Pancytopenia d.
Granulocytopenia
Correct Answer: to describe b. Polycythemia cells? - Polycythemia is an excess
of red blood cells. - Anemia is a deficiency of red blood cells. - Pancytopenia is a
decrease in red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. - Granulocytopenia
is a decrease in platelets
Question 17.
It is true that acute lymphoid leukemia (ALL) is a. Incurable b. More curable in adults c.
Primarily diagnosed in children d. Generally seen in adults old-er than 70 years
Correct Answer: c. Primarily diagnosed in children ALL is primarily a disorder
occurring in children. ALL is highly curable in children, less so in adults. Peak
incidence is between ages 3-7 years of age. A second rise occurs in middle age
Question 18.
An enlarged thyroid duces a colloid goiter a. Lack of iodine prevents mation of
thyroid-stimulating hormone without and T3 production b. Lack of iodine prevents and T3
but without thyroglobulin formation c. Excessive iodine thyroid-stimulating T4, and T3
formation d. Dietary iodine and replaced with
Correct Answer: gland pro- b. Lack of iodine prevents T4 and T3 but without
stopping when thyroglobulin formation for- stopping T4 T4 stopping suppresses
hormone, is insufficient iodized salt
Question 19.
Which is a modifiable risk factor for prevention of atherosclerosis? a. Smoking b. Genetics
c. Gender d. Age
Correct Answer: a. Smoking
