NUR 272 Exam 3 Review Questions and Correct Answers
plus Rationale | New 2026-2027 Update
Respiratory Assessment & Oxygenation
A patient with acute shortness of breath is admitted to the hospital. Which
action should the nurse take during the initial assessment of the patient?
A. Ask the patient to lie down to complete a full physical assessment.
B. Briefly ask specific questions about this episode of respiratory distress.
C. Complete the admission database to check for allergies before treatment.
D. Delay the physical assessment to first complete pulmonary function tests.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In acute respiratory distress, only focused, pertinent information is
obtained. A full assessment is deferred until the patient is stable.
The nurse prepares a patient with a left-sided pleural effusion for a
thoracentesis. How should the nurse position the patient?
A. Supine with the head of the bed elevated 30 degrees
B. In a high-Fowler’s position with the left arm extended
C. On the right side with the left arm extended above the head
D. Sitting upright with the arms supported on an overbed table
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Upright positioning with arms supported increases lung expansion,
allows fluid to collect at the bases, and widens the intercostal space.
The nurse teaches a patient about pulmonary function testing (PFT). Which
statement, if made by the patient, indicates teaching was effective?
A. “I will use my inhaler right before the test.”
B. “I won’t eat or drink anything 8 hours before the test.”
,C. “I should inhale deeply and blow out as hard as I can during the test.”
D. “My blood pressure and pulse will be checked every 15 minutes after the test.”
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: PFT requires maximal inhalation and forceful, prolonged exhalation.
Bronchodilators are avoided 6 hours before testing.
What does extrinsic PEEP do?
Correct Answer: It increases oxygenation by preventing alveolar collapse at end-
expiration.
When is extrinsic PEEP used?
Correct Answer: It is used in ARDS and other conditions with refractory
hypoxemia.
A patient who has a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
was hospitalized for increasing shortness of breath and chronic hypoxemia
(SaO2 levels of 89% to 90%). In planning for discharge, which action by the nurse
will be most effective in improving compliance with discharge teaching?
A. Start giving the patient discharge teaching on the day of admission.
B. Have the patient repeat the instructions immediately after teaching.
C. Accomplish the patient teaching just before the scheduled discharge.
D. Arrange for the patient’s caregiver to be present during the teaching.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Hypoxemia impairs learning. Including a caregiver increases the
likelihood that instructions will be followed.
A patient is admitted to the emergency department complaining of sudden
onset shortness of breath and is diagnosed with a possible pulmonary embolus.
How should the nurse prepare the patient for diagnostic testing to confirm the
diagnosis?
A. Start an IV so contrast media may be given.
B. Ensure that the patient has been NPO for at least 6 hours.
,C. Inform radiology that radioactive glucose preparation is needed.
D. Instruct the patient to undress to the waist and remove any metal objects.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Spiral CT with IV contrast is the most common diagnostic test for PE.
The nurse analyzes the results of a patient’s arterial blood gases (ABGs). Which
finding would require immediate action?
A. The bicarbonate level (HCO3−) is 31 mEq/L.
B. The arterial oxygen saturation (SaO2) is 92%.
C. The partial pressure of CO2 in arterial blood (PaCO2) is 31 mm Hg.
D. The partial pressure of oxygen in arterial blood (PaO2) is 59 mm Hg.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: PaO2 of 59 mm Hg indicates severe hypoxemia and impending tissue
hypoxia.
When assessing the respiratory system of an older patient, which finding
indicates that the nurse should take immediate action?
A. Weak cough effort
B. Barrel-shaped chest
C. Dry mucous membranes
D. Bilateral crackles at lung bases
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: New bilateral crackles may indicate heart failure or fluid overload and
require immediate follow-up.
A patient in metabolic alkalosis is admitted to the emergency department, and
pulse oximetry (SpO2) indicates that the O2 saturation is 94%. Which action
should the nurse take next?
A. Administer bicarbonate.
B. Complete a head-to-toe assessment.
, C. Place the patient on high-flow oxygen.
D. Obtain repeat arterial blood gases (ABGs).
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Metabolic alkalosis causes a left shift in the oxyhemoglobin curve,
decreasing oxygen delivery to tissues. High-flow oxygen is indicated.
The nurse assesses a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
who has been admitted with increasing dyspnea over the last 3 days. Which
finding is most important for the nurse to report to the health care provider?
A. Respirations are 36 breaths/minute.
B. Anterior-posterior chest ratio is 1:1.
C. Lung expansion is decreased bilaterally.
D. Hyperresonance to percussion is present.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Tachypnea indicates respiratory distress and need for rapid
intervention.
An occupational health nurse works at a manufacturing plant where there is
potential exposure to inhaled dust. Which action, if recommended by the nurse,
will be most helpful in reducing the incidence of lung disease?
A. Treat workers with pulmonary fibrosis.
B. Teach about symptoms of lung disease.
C. Require the use of protective equipment.
D. Monitor workers for coughing and wheezing.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Prevention requires use of appropriate protective equipment such as
masks.
The nurse monitors a patient after chest tube placement for a
hemopneumothorax. The nurse is most concerned if which assessment finding is
observed?
plus Rationale | New 2026-2027 Update
Respiratory Assessment & Oxygenation
A patient with acute shortness of breath is admitted to the hospital. Which
action should the nurse take during the initial assessment of the patient?
A. Ask the patient to lie down to complete a full physical assessment.
B. Briefly ask specific questions about this episode of respiratory distress.
C. Complete the admission database to check for allergies before treatment.
D. Delay the physical assessment to first complete pulmonary function tests.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In acute respiratory distress, only focused, pertinent information is
obtained. A full assessment is deferred until the patient is stable.
The nurse prepares a patient with a left-sided pleural effusion for a
thoracentesis. How should the nurse position the patient?
A. Supine with the head of the bed elevated 30 degrees
B. In a high-Fowler’s position with the left arm extended
C. On the right side with the left arm extended above the head
D. Sitting upright with the arms supported on an overbed table
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Upright positioning with arms supported increases lung expansion,
allows fluid to collect at the bases, and widens the intercostal space.
The nurse teaches a patient about pulmonary function testing (PFT). Which
statement, if made by the patient, indicates teaching was effective?
A. “I will use my inhaler right before the test.”
B. “I won’t eat or drink anything 8 hours before the test.”
,C. “I should inhale deeply and blow out as hard as I can during the test.”
D. “My blood pressure and pulse will be checked every 15 minutes after the test.”
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: PFT requires maximal inhalation and forceful, prolonged exhalation.
Bronchodilators are avoided 6 hours before testing.
What does extrinsic PEEP do?
Correct Answer: It increases oxygenation by preventing alveolar collapse at end-
expiration.
When is extrinsic PEEP used?
Correct Answer: It is used in ARDS and other conditions with refractory
hypoxemia.
A patient who has a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
was hospitalized for increasing shortness of breath and chronic hypoxemia
(SaO2 levels of 89% to 90%). In planning for discharge, which action by the nurse
will be most effective in improving compliance with discharge teaching?
A. Start giving the patient discharge teaching on the day of admission.
B. Have the patient repeat the instructions immediately after teaching.
C. Accomplish the patient teaching just before the scheduled discharge.
D. Arrange for the patient’s caregiver to be present during the teaching.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Hypoxemia impairs learning. Including a caregiver increases the
likelihood that instructions will be followed.
A patient is admitted to the emergency department complaining of sudden
onset shortness of breath and is diagnosed with a possible pulmonary embolus.
How should the nurse prepare the patient for diagnostic testing to confirm the
diagnosis?
A. Start an IV so contrast media may be given.
B. Ensure that the patient has been NPO for at least 6 hours.
,C. Inform radiology that radioactive glucose preparation is needed.
D. Instruct the patient to undress to the waist and remove any metal objects.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Spiral CT with IV contrast is the most common diagnostic test for PE.
The nurse analyzes the results of a patient’s arterial blood gases (ABGs). Which
finding would require immediate action?
A. The bicarbonate level (HCO3−) is 31 mEq/L.
B. The arterial oxygen saturation (SaO2) is 92%.
C. The partial pressure of CO2 in arterial blood (PaCO2) is 31 mm Hg.
D. The partial pressure of oxygen in arterial blood (PaO2) is 59 mm Hg.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: PaO2 of 59 mm Hg indicates severe hypoxemia and impending tissue
hypoxia.
When assessing the respiratory system of an older patient, which finding
indicates that the nurse should take immediate action?
A. Weak cough effort
B. Barrel-shaped chest
C. Dry mucous membranes
D. Bilateral crackles at lung bases
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: New bilateral crackles may indicate heart failure or fluid overload and
require immediate follow-up.
A patient in metabolic alkalosis is admitted to the emergency department, and
pulse oximetry (SpO2) indicates that the O2 saturation is 94%. Which action
should the nurse take next?
A. Administer bicarbonate.
B. Complete a head-to-toe assessment.
, C. Place the patient on high-flow oxygen.
D. Obtain repeat arterial blood gases (ABGs).
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Metabolic alkalosis causes a left shift in the oxyhemoglobin curve,
decreasing oxygen delivery to tissues. High-flow oxygen is indicated.
The nurse assesses a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
who has been admitted with increasing dyspnea over the last 3 days. Which
finding is most important for the nurse to report to the health care provider?
A. Respirations are 36 breaths/minute.
B. Anterior-posterior chest ratio is 1:1.
C. Lung expansion is decreased bilaterally.
D. Hyperresonance to percussion is present.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Tachypnea indicates respiratory distress and need for rapid
intervention.
An occupational health nurse works at a manufacturing plant where there is
potential exposure to inhaled dust. Which action, if recommended by the nurse,
will be most helpful in reducing the incidence of lung disease?
A. Treat workers with pulmonary fibrosis.
B. Teach about symptoms of lung disease.
C. Require the use of protective equipment.
D. Monitor workers for coughing and wheezing.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Prevention requires use of appropriate protective equipment such as
masks.
The nurse monitors a patient after chest tube placement for a
hemopneumothorax. The nurse is most concerned if which assessment finding is
observed?
