NR 571 FINAL EXAM — Complex Diagnosis & Management in Acute Care Practicum Chamberlain University | 2026/2027 Edition
NR571 / NR 571 FINAL EXAM (LATEST
UPDATE)
COMPLEX DIAGNOSIS AND MANAGEMENT IN ACUTE CARE
PRACTICUM
Complete Review | Questions and Verified Answers | 100% Correct
Chamberlain University | Edition
Total Questions 150 Cognitive Mix 20% Recall / 50% Application / 30% Analysis
Question Format 4-option MCQ (A-D) Style 80% Scenario-Based / 20% Direct Knowledge
Aligned With AACN Essentials of Master's EducationCompetencies AGACNP (2026/2027)
Time Allowed 180 minutes Passing Score 80% (120/150)
# Section # Qs # Section # Qs
1 Section 1: Complex Cardiovascular Disorders in Acute Care
20 6 Section 6: Gastrointestinal & Hepatic Critical Care 15
2 Section 2: Complex Respiratory Disorders in Acute Care18 7 Section 7: Hematological & Oncological Critical Care 15
3 Section 3: Neurological & Neurosurgical Critical Care 18 8 Section 8: Multisystem & Sepsis Critical Care 15
4 Section 4: Renal & Genitourinary Critical Care 15 9 Section 9: Pharmacology & Medication Management in 10
Acute Care
5 Section 5: Endocrine & Metabolic Critical Care 15 10 Section 10: Professional Practice, Ethics, & Healthcare Policy
9
Section 1: Complex Cardiovascular Disorders in Acute Care
Q1: A 58-year-old male presents to the ED with substernal chest pressure radiating to the left arm,
diaphoresis, and nausea for the past 45 minutes. ECG reveals ST-segment elevations of 2 mm in leads II, III,
and aVF. Which intervention is the AGACNP's priority?
A. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin and reassess pain in 5 minutes
B. Activate the STEMI alert pathway and prepare for immediate reperfusion therapy *[CORRECT]*
C. Obtain serial troponins every 6 hours before initiating definitive therapy
D. Start a heparin drip and wait for cardiology consultation in the morning
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: This patient presents with a classic STEMI in the inferior territory (II, III, aVF). Per ACC/AHA and NR 571
curriculum, the priority is immediate reperfusion—primary PCI within 90 minutes of first medical contact or thrombolytics
within 30 minutes if PCI is unavailable. Nitroglycerin alone (A) does not address the occlusion, serial troponins (C) delay
lifesaving therapy, and waiting for routine consultation (D) violates time-sensitive STEMI standards.
Q2: A 72-year-old female with a history of NSTEMI 3 days ago suddenly develops coarse crackles throughout
the lung fields, an S3 gallop, pink frothy sputum, and a respiratory rate of 36. BP is 168/96, HR 110 and
regular. Which medication order should the AGACNP anticipate FIRST?
A. Intravenous metoprolol 5 mg push to reduce myocardial oxygen demand
Page 1 Verified Answers — 100% Correct
,NR 571 FINAL EXAM — Complex Diagnosis & Management in Acute Care Practicum Chamberlain University | 2026/2027 Edition
B. Intravenous furosemide 40 mg to reduce preload *[CORRECT]*
C. Sublingual nitroglycerin 0.4 mg every 5 minutes up to 3 doses
D. Intravenous morphine 4 mg to reduce anxiety and preload
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The patient is in acute decompensated heart failure with pulmonary edema following NSTEMI. Loop diuretics
(furosemide) are first-line to reduce preload and relieve congestion per AACN/AHA guidelines. Beta-blockers (A) are
contraindicated in acute decompensation, nitroglycerin (C) may help but is less effective than diuresis when severe
congestion exists, and morphine (D) is no longer routine due to associated increased mechanical ventilation and mortality.
Q3: A 64-year-old post-MI patient has a PA catheter in place. Current readings: PA pressure 38/18 mmHg,
PCWP 22 mmHg, CO 3.2 L/min, CI 1.6 L/min/m², SVR 1980 dynes·s·cm ⁵. Which interpretation is most
accurate?
A. Distributive shock with low SVR and high cardiac output
B. Cardiogenic shock with low cardiac output and high filling pressures *[CORRECT]*
C. Hypovolemic shock with low filling pressures and high SVR
D. Obstructive shock from pulmonary hypertension with normal CO
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The profile shows low cardiac output (CO 3.2, CI 1.6), elevated PCWP (22) indicating increased preload, and
elevated SVR (1980) reflecting compensatory vasoconstriction—classic cardiogenic shock. Distributive shock (A) presents
with low SVR, hypovolemic shock (C) shows low filling pressures, and obstructive shock (D) would not typically yield
elevated PCWP with low CO. AACN hemodynamic monitoring standards support this interpretation.
Q4: A patient with cardiogenic shock is on an intra-aortic balloon pump (IABP) with 1:3 augmentation. The
AGACNP notes a sudden loss of arterial waveform augmentation and a drop in diastolic pressure. What is the
priority action?
A. Increase the balloon pump ratio to 1:1 to restore augmentation
B. Assess for balloon leak or migration, and verify timing trigger settings *[CORRECT]*
C. Administer a 500 mL crystalloid bolus to improve preload
D. Discontinue the IABP and prepare for emergent VA-ECMO
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Loss of augmentation with dropping diastolic pressure suggests balloon leak, migration, or timing/trigger
failure—mechanical issues that must be assessed before any therapeutic change per AACN IABP management standards.
Increasing ratio (A) will not fix a mechanical problem, fluids (C) do not address the device, and ECMO (D) is premature
before troubleshooting. Patient safety demands device assessment first.
Q5: A 69-year-old with a biventricular ICD receives an inappropriate shock while in the unit. Telemetry
shows a shock delivered during sinus rhythm with artifact from patient turning. What is the most appropriate
next step?
A. Disable the ICD immediately to prevent further inappropriate shocks
B. Interrogate the device, review sensed events, and adjust sensing/discrimination parameters
*[CORRECT]*
C. Administer intravenous amiodarone 150 mg to suppress future arrhythmias
D. Apply magnet over the device to temporarily suspend therapies
Correct Answer: B
Page 2 Verified Answers — 100% Correct
,NR 571 FINAL EXAM — Complex Diagnosis & Management in Acute Care Practicum Chamberlain University | 2026/2027 Edition
Rationale: Inappropriate ICD shocks commonly result from oversensing of artifact, T-waves, or diaphragmatic
myopotentials. The correct response is device interrogation and parameter adjustment per HRS/EHRA expert consensus.
Disabling the device (A) leaves the patient unprotected, amiodarone (C) does not address sensing error, and magnet
application (D) only temporarily suspends therapies and is reserved for emergent situations such as storm.
Q6: A 55-year-old male with new-onset atrial fibrillation and a CHA₂DS₂-VASc score of 4 is hemodynamically
stable. Which anticoagulation plan best aligns with current AACN/AHA guidance?
A. Start aspirin 81 mg daily and re-evaluate in 6 months
B. Initiate apixaban 5 mg twice daily without parenteral bridging *[CORRECT]*
C. Begin warfarin with heparin bridge and transition over 5 days
D. Administer intravenous metoprolol and defer anticoagulation until cardioversion
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: For hemodynamically stable AF with CHA₂DS₂-VASc ≥2, oral anticoagulation is indicated; DOACs such as
apixaban are preferred over warfarin in eligible patients per the 2023 ACC/AHA AF guidelines due to lower
bleeding/stroke risk without routine bridging. Aspirin (A) is inadequate, heparin bridging (C) is generally reserved for
high-risk contexts, and deferring anticoagulation (D) increases stroke risk.
Q7: A patient in the CCU complains of palpitations. The monitor shows a wide-complex tachycardia at 180
bpm with AV dissociation and fusion beats. BP is 80/50. What is the most appropriate immediate
intervention?
A. Administer adenosine 6 mg rapid IV push
B. Administer amiodarone 150 mg IV over 10 minutes
C. Synchronized cardioversion with 100 joules biphasic *[CORRECT]*
D. Perform carotid sinus massage to confirm rhythm
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Wide-complex tachycardia with AV dissociation and fusion beats is VT; hemodynamic instability mandates
immediate synchronized cardioversion per ACLS. Adenosine (A) is only for stable regular monomorphic wide-complex
tachycardia of uncertain origin, amiodarone (B) is reserved for stable patients, and carotid massage (D) is inappropriate
with instability.
Q8: A post-CABG patient on day 2 develops sudden tachycardia, hypotension, muffled heart sounds, and a
rising CVP with falling PA pressures. The chest tube output has abruptly stopped. Which complication should
the AGACNP suspect?
A. Acute cardiac tamponade from clot obstruction of chest tubes *[CORRECT]*
B. Pulmonary embolism from deep vein thrombosis
C. Acute mitral regurgitation from papillary muscle rupture
D. Tension pneumothorax from positive pressure ventilation
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Beck's triad (muffled heart sounds, hypotension, elevated CVP) with sudden cessation of chest tube output
strongly indicates postoperative tamponade from clot—classically seen within 48 hours post-CABG. PE (B) would show
tachycardia with hypoxia, mitral regurgitation (C) presents with a new murmur, and tension pneumothorax (D) shows
tracheal deviation and asymmetric breath sounds.
Q9: A patient with severe aortic stenosis presents with syncope, angina, and dyspnea on exertion.
Echocardiography shows an aortic valve area of 0.6 cm² and mean gradient of 55 mmHg. Which statement is
correct regarding management?
Page 3 Verified Answers — 100% Correct
, NR 571 FINAL EXAM — Complex Diagnosis & Management in Acute Care Practicum Chamberlain University | 2026/2027 Edition
A. Begin aggressive diuresis and beta-blockade to reduce afterload
B. Refer for aortic valve replacement; medical therapy alone does not improve survival *[CORRECT]*
C. Initiate ACE inhibitor and statin therapy as first-line treatment
D. Schedule outpatient stress testing to assess functional capacity
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Symptomatic severe AS (syncope, angina, heart failure) carries a median survival under 2 years without
intervention, and definitive treatment is aortic valve replacement (surgical or TAVR) per ACC/AHA valvular guidelines.
Aggressive diuresis and beta-blockade (A), ACE inhibitors (C), and stress testing (D) do not alter disease trajectory and
may be harmful.
Q10: An arterial line waveform shows a dampened tracing with underestimation of systolic pressure and
overestimation of diastolic pressure. The AGACNP notes a small air bubble in the tubing. The most
appropriate action is to:
A. Increase the flush rate to 5 mL/hr to improve waveform quality
B. Carefully aspirate and remove air bubbles, then re-zero and level the transducer *[CORRECT]*
C. Calibrate the monitor's gain setting to amplify the waveform
D. Replace the arterial line with a new catheter at a different site
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Air bubbles, kinked tubing, and bubbles cause underdamping, producing a dampened waveform with
underestimation of systolic and overestimation of diastolic pressures. AACN procedure standards require removal of air
bubbles, re-zeroing to atmospheric pressure, and leveling to the phlebostatic axis. Increasing flush (A), adjusting gain (C),
or replacing the line (D) does not correct the air artifact.
Q11: A 75-year-old with heart failure with preserved ejection fraction (HFpEF) and chronic kidney disease
presents with worsening dyspnea and lower extremity edema. BP is 145/88, HR 78, baseline creatinine 2.1.
Which diuretic strategy is most appropriate?
A. Hydrochlorothiazide 25 mg daily
B. Spironolactone 25 mg daily
C. Furosemide 40 mg twice daily with daily potassium and renal panel monitoring *[CORRECT]*
D. Indapamide 2.5 mg daily with serum magnesium checks weekly
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: For HFpEF with significant congestion and CKD, loop diuretics (furosemide) are preferred because thiazides
(A, D) lose efficacy when GFR <30. Spironolactone (B) is added for symptom control in selected HFpEF patients but not
first-line for volume overload. Close electrolyte and renal monitoring is essential per ACC/AHA HF guidelines.
Q12: A patient with anterior STEMI undergoes primary PCI with stent placement. Dual antiplatelet therapy
(DAPT) is started. The patient has a high bleeding risk (HAS-BLED 3) but also high ischemic risk. Which
DAPT duration best aligns with current ACC/AHA guidance?
A. 3 months of aspirin plus clopidogrel, then aspirin monotherapy
B. 6 to 12 months of aspirin plus clopidogrel, with individualized adjustment based on bleeding/ischemic
balance *[CORRECT]*
C. Lifelong dual antiplatelet therapy with aspirin plus ticagrelor
D. 30 days of clopidogrel monotherapy followed by aspirin indefinitely
Correct Answer: B
Page 4 Verified Answers — 100% Correct
NR571 / NR 571 FINAL EXAM (LATEST
UPDATE)
COMPLEX DIAGNOSIS AND MANAGEMENT IN ACUTE CARE
PRACTICUM
Complete Review | Questions and Verified Answers | 100% Correct
Chamberlain University | Edition
Total Questions 150 Cognitive Mix 20% Recall / 50% Application / 30% Analysis
Question Format 4-option MCQ (A-D) Style 80% Scenario-Based / 20% Direct Knowledge
Aligned With AACN Essentials of Master's EducationCompetencies AGACNP (2026/2027)
Time Allowed 180 minutes Passing Score 80% (120/150)
# Section # Qs # Section # Qs
1 Section 1: Complex Cardiovascular Disorders in Acute Care
20 6 Section 6: Gastrointestinal & Hepatic Critical Care 15
2 Section 2: Complex Respiratory Disorders in Acute Care18 7 Section 7: Hematological & Oncological Critical Care 15
3 Section 3: Neurological & Neurosurgical Critical Care 18 8 Section 8: Multisystem & Sepsis Critical Care 15
4 Section 4: Renal & Genitourinary Critical Care 15 9 Section 9: Pharmacology & Medication Management in 10
Acute Care
5 Section 5: Endocrine & Metabolic Critical Care 15 10 Section 10: Professional Practice, Ethics, & Healthcare Policy
9
Section 1: Complex Cardiovascular Disorders in Acute Care
Q1: A 58-year-old male presents to the ED with substernal chest pressure radiating to the left arm,
diaphoresis, and nausea for the past 45 minutes. ECG reveals ST-segment elevations of 2 mm in leads II, III,
and aVF. Which intervention is the AGACNP's priority?
A. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin and reassess pain in 5 minutes
B. Activate the STEMI alert pathway and prepare for immediate reperfusion therapy *[CORRECT]*
C. Obtain serial troponins every 6 hours before initiating definitive therapy
D. Start a heparin drip and wait for cardiology consultation in the morning
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: This patient presents with a classic STEMI in the inferior territory (II, III, aVF). Per ACC/AHA and NR 571
curriculum, the priority is immediate reperfusion—primary PCI within 90 minutes of first medical contact or thrombolytics
within 30 minutes if PCI is unavailable. Nitroglycerin alone (A) does not address the occlusion, serial troponins (C) delay
lifesaving therapy, and waiting for routine consultation (D) violates time-sensitive STEMI standards.
Q2: A 72-year-old female with a history of NSTEMI 3 days ago suddenly develops coarse crackles throughout
the lung fields, an S3 gallop, pink frothy sputum, and a respiratory rate of 36. BP is 168/96, HR 110 and
regular. Which medication order should the AGACNP anticipate FIRST?
A. Intravenous metoprolol 5 mg push to reduce myocardial oxygen demand
Page 1 Verified Answers — 100% Correct
,NR 571 FINAL EXAM — Complex Diagnosis & Management in Acute Care Practicum Chamberlain University | 2026/2027 Edition
B. Intravenous furosemide 40 mg to reduce preload *[CORRECT]*
C. Sublingual nitroglycerin 0.4 mg every 5 minutes up to 3 doses
D. Intravenous morphine 4 mg to reduce anxiety and preload
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The patient is in acute decompensated heart failure with pulmonary edema following NSTEMI. Loop diuretics
(furosemide) are first-line to reduce preload and relieve congestion per AACN/AHA guidelines. Beta-blockers (A) are
contraindicated in acute decompensation, nitroglycerin (C) may help but is less effective than diuresis when severe
congestion exists, and morphine (D) is no longer routine due to associated increased mechanical ventilation and mortality.
Q3: A 64-year-old post-MI patient has a PA catheter in place. Current readings: PA pressure 38/18 mmHg,
PCWP 22 mmHg, CO 3.2 L/min, CI 1.6 L/min/m², SVR 1980 dynes·s·cm ⁵. Which interpretation is most
accurate?
A. Distributive shock with low SVR and high cardiac output
B. Cardiogenic shock with low cardiac output and high filling pressures *[CORRECT]*
C. Hypovolemic shock with low filling pressures and high SVR
D. Obstructive shock from pulmonary hypertension with normal CO
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The profile shows low cardiac output (CO 3.2, CI 1.6), elevated PCWP (22) indicating increased preload, and
elevated SVR (1980) reflecting compensatory vasoconstriction—classic cardiogenic shock. Distributive shock (A) presents
with low SVR, hypovolemic shock (C) shows low filling pressures, and obstructive shock (D) would not typically yield
elevated PCWP with low CO. AACN hemodynamic monitoring standards support this interpretation.
Q4: A patient with cardiogenic shock is on an intra-aortic balloon pump (IABP) with 1:3 augmentation. The
AGACNP notes a sudden loss of arterial waveform augmentation and a drop in diastolic pressure. What is the
priority action?
A. Increase the balloon pump ratio to 1:1 to restore augmentation
B. Assess for balloon leak or migration, and verify timing trigger settings *[CORRECT]*
C. Administer a 500 mL crystalloid bolus to improve preload
D. Discontinue the IABP and prepare for emergent VA-ECMO
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Loss of augmentation with dropping diastolic pressure suggests balloon leak, migration, or timing/trigger
failure—mechanical issues that must be assessed before any therapeutic change per AACN IABP management standards.
Increasing ratio (A) will not fix a mechanical problem, fluids (C) do not address the device, and ECMO (D) is premature
before troubleshooting. Patient safety demands device assessment first.
Q5: A 69-year-old with a biventricular ICD receives an inappropriate shock while in the unit. Telemetry
shows a shock delivered during sinus rhythm with artifact from patient turning. What is the most appropriate
next step?
A. Disable the ICD immediately to prevent further inappropriate shocks
B. Interrogate the device, review sensed events, and adjust sensing/discrimination parameters
*[CORRECT]*
C. Administer intravenous amiodarone 150 mg to suppress future arrhythmias
D. Apply magnet over the device to temporarily suspend therapies
Correct Answer: B
Page 2 Verified Answers — 100% Correct
,NR 571 FINAL EXAM — Complex Diagnosis & Management in Acute Care Practicum Chamberlain University | 2026/2027 Edition
Rationale: Inappropriate ICD shocks commonly result from oversensing of artifact, T-waves, or diaphragmatic
myopotentials. The correct response is device interrogation and parameter adjustment per HRS/EHRA expert consensus.
Disabling the device (A) leaves the patient unprotected, amiodarone (C) does not address sensing error, and magnet
application (D) only temporarily suspends therapies and is reserved for emergent situations such as storm.
Q6: A 55-year-old male with new-onset atrial fibrillation and a CHA₂DS₂-VASc score of 4 is hemodynamically
stable. Which anticoagulation plan best aligns with current AACN/AHA guidance?
A. Start aspirin 81 mg daily and re-evaluate in 6 months
B. Initiate apixaban 5 mg twice daily without parenteral bridging *[CORRECT]*
C. Begin warfarin with heparin bridge and transition over 5 days
D. Administer intravenous metoprolol and defer anticoagulation until cardioversion
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: For hemodynamically stable AF with CHA₂DS₂-VASc ≥2, oral anticoagulation is indicated; DOACs such as
apixaban are preferred over warfarin in eligible patients per the 2023 ACC/AHA AF guidelines due to lower
bleeding/stroke risk without routine bridging. Aspirin (A) is inadequate, heparin bridging (C) is generally reserved for
high-risk contexts, and deferring anticoagulation (D) increases stroke risk.
Q7: A patient in the CCU complains of palpitations. The monitor shows a wide-complex tachycardia at 180
bpm with AV dissociation and fusion beats. BP is 80/50. What is the most appropriate immediate
intervention?
A. Administer adenosine 6 mg rapid IV push
B. Administer amiodarone 150 mg IV over 10 minutes
C. Synchronized cardioversion with 100 joules biphasic *[CORRECT]*
D. Perform carotid sinus massage to confirm rhythm
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Wide-complex tachycardia with AV dissociation and fusion beats is VT; hemodynamic instability mandates
immediate synchronized cardioversion per ACLS. Adenosine (A) is only for stable regular monomorphic wide-complex
tachycardia of uncertain origin, amiodarone (B) is reserved for stable patients, and carotid massage (D) is inappropriate
with instability.
Q8: A post-CABG patient on day 2 develops sudden tachycardia, hypotension, muffled heart sounds, and a
rising CVP with falling PA pressures. The chest tube output has abruptly stopped. Which complication should
the AGACNP suspect?
A. Acute cardiac tamponade from clot obstruction of chest tubes *[CORRECT]*
B. Pulmonary embolism from deep vein thrombosis
C. Acute mitral regurgitation from papillary muscle rupture
D. Tension pneumothorax from positive pressure ventilation
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Beck's triad (muffled heart sounds, hypotension, elevated CVP) with sudden cessation of chest tube output
strongly indicates postoperative tamponade from clot—classically seen within 48 hours post-CABG. PE (B) would show
tachycardia with hypoxia, mitral regurgitation (C) presents with a new murmur, and tension pneumothorax (D) shows
tracheal deviation and asymmetric breath sounds.
Q9: A patient with severe aortic stenosis presents with syncope, angina, and dyspnea on exertion.
Echocardiography shows an aortic valve area of 0.6 cm² and mean gradient of 55 mmHg. Which statement is
correct regarding management?
Page 3 Verified Answers — 100% Correct
, NR 571 FINAL EXAM — Complex Diagnosis & Management in Acute Care Practicum Chamberlain University | 2026/2027 Edition
A. Begin aggressive diuresis and beta-blockade to reduce afterload
B. Refer for aortic valve replacement; medical therapy alone does not improve survival *[CORRECT]*
C. Initiate ACE inhibitor and statin therapy as first-line treatment
D. Schedule outpatient stress testing to assess functional capacity
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Symptomatic severe AS (syncope, angina, heart failure) carries a median survival under 2 years without
intervention, and definitive treatment is aortic valve replacement (surgical or TAVR) per ACC/AHA valvular guidelines.
Aggressive diuresis and beta-blockade (A), ACE inhibitors (C), and stress testing (D) do not alter disease trajectory and
may be harmful.
Q10: An arterial line waveform shows a dampened tracing with underestimation of systolic pressure and
overestimation of diastolic pressure. The AGACNP notes a small air bubble in the tubing. The most
appropriate action is to:
A. Increase the flush rate to 5 mL/hr to improve waveform quality
B. Carefully aspirate and remove air bubbles, then re-zero and level the transducer *[CORRECT]*
C. Calibrate the monitor's gain setting to amplify the waveform
D. Replace the arterial line with a new catheter at a different site
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Air bubbles, kinked tubing, and bubbles cause underdamping, producing a dampened waveform with
underestimation of systolic and overestimation of diastolic pressures. AACN procedure standards require removal of air
bubbles, re-zeroing to atmospheric pressure, and leveling to the phlebostatic axis. Increasing flush (A), adjusting gain (C),
or replacing the line (D) does not correct the air artifact.
Q11: A 75-year-old with heart failure with preserved ejection fraction (HFpEF) and chronic kidney disease
presents with worsening dyspnea and lower extremity edema. BP is 145/88, HR 78, baseline creatinine 2.1.
Which diuretic strategy is most appropriate?
A. Hydrochlorothiazide 25 mg daily
B. Spironolactone 25 mg daily
C. Furosemide 40 mg twice daily with daily potassium and renal panel monitoring *[CORRECT]*
D. Indapamide 2.5 mg daily with serum magnesium checks weekly
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: For HFpEF with significant congestion and CKD, loop diuretics (furosemide) are preferred because thiazides
(A, D) lose efficacy when GFR <30. Spironolactone (B) is added for symptom control in selected HFpEF patients but not
first-line for volume overload. Close electrolyte and renal monitoring is essential per ACC/AHA HF guidelines.
Q12: A patient with anterior STEMI undergoes primary PCI with stent placement. Dual antiplatelet therapy
(DAPT) is started. The patient has a high bleeding risk (HAS-BLED 3) but also high ischemic risk. Which
DAPT duration best aligns with current ACC/AHA guidance?
A. 3 months of aspirin plus clopidogrel, then aspirin monotherapy
B. 6 to 12 months of aspirin plus clopidogrel, with individualized adjustment based on bleeding/ischemic
balance *[CORRECT]*
C. Lifelong dual antiplatelet therapy with aspirin plus ticagrelor
D. 30 days of clopidogrel monotherapy followed by aspirin indefinitely
Correct Answer: B
Page 4 Verified Answers — 100% Correct
