NUR 2407 PHARMACOLOGY FINAL
EXAM PREP 2026/2027 QUESTIONS AND
VERIFIED ANSWERS| 100% CORRECT
|GRADE A –: RASMUSSEN COLLEGE
1. A nurse is caring for a client with a serum digoxin level of 2.5 ng/mL. Which of the
following clinical findings should the nurse expect to observe?
A. Hyperkalemia and tachycardia
B. Increased urinary output and hypertension
C. Yellow-green visual halos and nausea
D. Severe peripheral edema and weight gain
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: The therapeutic range for digoxin is 0.5 to 2.0 ng/mL. A level of
2.5 ng/mL indicates toxicity, commonly manifested by gastrointestinal distress and visual
disturbances like yellow-green halos.
2. A client is prescribed lisinopril for hypertension. The nurse should instruct the client to
report which common adverse effect associated with ACE inhibitors?
A. A persistent dry cough
B. Excessive gum bleeding
,C. Tinnitus and hearing loss
D. Urinary retention
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: ACE inhibitors prevent the breakdown of bradykinin and
substance P, which can lead to the accumulation of these substances in the respiratory
tract, causing a persistent dry cough.
3. A client receiving a heparin infusion has an activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) of
110 seconds. Which medication should the nurse anticipate the provider will order?
A. Vitamin K
B. Glucagon
C. Protamine sulfate
D. Calcium gluconate
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: Protamine sulfate is the specific reversal agent for heparin
overdose, which is indicated when the aPTT is significantly above the therapeutic range
(typically 1.5 to 2.5 times the baseline).
4. Before administering a dose of warfarin, the nurse reviews the client’s lab results. Which
value is the primary indicator of the medication’s effectiveness?
A. aPTT
, B. Platelet count
C. International Normalized Ratio (INR)
D. Creatinine clearance
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: The INR is the standard monitoring parameter for warfarin
therapy. A therapeutic INR for most conditions is between 2.0 and 3.0.
5. A client starting rifampin for tuberculosis should be warned about which harmless side
effect?
A. Orange discoloration of urine and sweat
B. Permanent hearing loss
C. Severe photosensitivity
D. Peripheral neuropathy
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: Rifampin causes a benign orange-red discoloration of body
fluids, including urine, sweat, tears, and saliva. Clients should be informed to avoid wearing
contact lenses as they may become stained.
6. Which instruction is most important for a client prescribed tetracycline?
A. Take the medication with a glass of milk to prevent GI upset.
B. Expect a metallic taste in the mouth.
EXAM PREP 2026/2027 QUESTIONS AND
VERIFIED ANSWERS| 100% CORRECT
|GRADE A –: RASMUSSEN COLLEGE
1. A nurse is caring for a client with a serum digoxin level of 2.5 ng/mL. Which of the
following clinical findings should the nurse expect to observe?
A. Hyperkalemia and tachycardia
B. Increased urinary output and hypertension
C. Yellow-green visual halos and nausea
D. Severe peripheral edema and weight gain
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: The therapeutic range for digoxin is 0.5 to 2.0 ng/mL. A level of
2.5 ng/mL indicates toxicity, commonly manifested by gastrointestinal distress and visual
disturbances like yellow-green halos.
2. A client is prescribed lisinopril for hypertension. The nurse should instruct the client to
report which common adverse effect associated with ACE inhibitors?
A. A persistent dry cough
B. Excessive gum bleeding
,C. Tinnitus and hearing loss
D. Urinary retention
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: ACE inhibitors prevent the breakdown of bradykinin and
substance P, which can lead to the accumulation of these substances in the respiratory
tract, causing a persistent dry cough.
3. A client receiving a heparin infusion has an activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) of
110 seconds. Which medication should the nurse anticipate the provider will order?
A. Vitamin K
B. Glucagon
C. Protamine sulfate
D. Calcium gluconate
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: Protamine sulfate is the specific reversal agent for heparin
overdose, which is indicated when the aPTT is significantly above the therapeutic range
(typically 1.5 to 2.5 times the baseline).
4. Before administering a dose of warfarin, the nurse reviews the client’s lab results. Which
value is the primary indicator of the medication’s effectiveness?
A. aPTT
, B. Platelet count
C. International Normalized Ratio (INR)
D. Creatinine clearance
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: The INR is the standard monitoring parameter for warfarin
therapy. A therapeutic INR for most conditions is between 2.0 and 3.0.
5. A client starting rifampin for tuberculosis should be warned about which harmless side
effect?
A. Orange discoloration of urine and sweat
B. Permanent hearing loss
C. Severe photosensitivity
D. Peripheral neuropathy
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: Rifampin causes a benign orange-red discoloration of body
fluids, including urine, sweat, tears, and saliva. Clients should be informed to avoid wearing
contact lenses as they may become stained.
6. Which instruction is most important for a client prescribed tetracycline?
A. Take the medication with a glass of milk to prevent GI upset.
B. Expect a metallic taste in the mouth.
