NUR 2407 PHARMACOLOGY PRACTICE
EXAM 2026/2027 QUESTIONS AND
VERIFIED ANSWERS| 100% CORRECT
|GRADE A –: RASMUSSEN COLLEGE
1. A patient with a history of heart failure is prescribed Digoxin. Which of the following
electrolyte imbalances should the nurse monitor most closely to prevent Digoxin toxicity?
A. Hypokalemia
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Hypernatremia
D. Hyponatremia
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: Hypokalemia increases the risk of Digoxin toxicity because
potassium and digoxin compete for the same binding sites on the Na+/K+ ATPase pump.
Low potassium levels allow more digoxin to bind, leading to toxicity.
2. When administering a sublingual nitroglycerin tablet to a patient with angina, which
instruction is most important for the nurse to provide?
A. Swallow the tablet with a full glass of water.
B. Chew the tablet thoroughly before swallowing.
,C. Take the medication only after the pain becomes severe.
D. Place the tablet under the tongue and let it dissolve completely.
Answer: D
Conceptual Explanation: Sublingual medications must dissolve under the tongue to be
absorbed directly into the systemic circulation, bypassing the first-pass metabolism of the
liver.
3. A patient is receiving Vancomycin IV for a MRSA infection. The nurse notes the patient’s
face and neck have become bright red and flushed. Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Administer Epinephrine immediately.
B. Slow the infusion rate of the Vancomycin.
C. Stop the infusion and notify the provider.
D. Apply cold compresses to the flushed areas.
Answer: B
Conceptual Explanation: Red Man Syndrome is an infusion-related reaction, not a true
allergy. It is caused by rapid administration. The first action is to slow the infusion rate.
4. A patient is prescribed Warfarin for atrial fibrillation. Which laboratory value will the nurse
monitor to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?
A. aPTT
B. Platelet count
, C. PT/INR
D. Hemoglobin and Hematocrit
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: PT/INR (Prothrombin Time/International Normalized Ratio) is
used to monitor the effectiveness of Warfarin. aPTT is used for Heparin.
5. Which of the following medications is considered a ‘rescue’ inhaler for a patient
experiencing an acute asthma attack?
A. Albuterol
B. Salmeterol
C. Fluticasone
D. Tiotropium
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: Albuterol is a short-acting beta2-agonist (SABA) used for rapid
bronchodilation during acute symptoms. The others are long-acting or maintenance
medications.
6. A patient taking Lisinopril for hypertension develops a dry, nonproductive cough. What is
the nurse’s best interpretation of this finding?
A. The patient is developing pulmonary edema.
B. This is a common side effect of ACE inhibitors due to bradykinin buildup.
EXAM 2026/2027 QUESTIONS AND
VERIFIED ANSWERS| 100% CORRECT
|GRADE A –: RASMUSSEN COLLEGE
1. A patient with a history of heart failure is prescribed Digoxin. Which of the following
electrolyte imbalances should the nurse monitor most closely to prevent Digoxin toxicity?
A. Hypokalemia
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Hypernatremia
D. Hyponatremia
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: Hypokalemia increases the risk of Digoxin toxicity because
potassium and digoxin compete for the same binding sites on the Na+/K+ ATPase pump.
Low potassium levels allow more digoxin to bind, leading to toxicity.
2. When administering a sublingual nitroglycerin tablet to a patient with angina, which
instruction is most important for the nurse to provide?
A. Swallow the tablet with a full glass of water.
B. Chew the tablet thoroughly before swallowing.
,C. Take the medication only after the pain becomes severe.
D. Place the tablet under the tongue and let it dissolve completely.
Answer: D
Conceptual Explanation: Sublingual medications must dissolve under the tongue to be
absorbed directly into the systemic circulation, bypassing the first-pass metabolism of the
liver.
3. A patient is receiving Vancomycin IV for a MRSA infection. The nurse notes the patient’s
face and neck have become bright red and flushed. Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Administer Epinephrine immediately.
B. Slow the infusion rate of the Vancomycin.
C. Stop the infusion and notify the provider.
D. Apply cold compresses to the flushed areas.
Answer: B
Conceptual Explanation: Red Man Syndrome is an infusion-related reaction, not a true
allergy. It is caused by rapid administration. The first action is to slow the infusion rate.
4. A patient is prescribed Warfarin for atrial fibrillation. Which laboratory value will the nurse
monitor to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?
A. aPTT
B. Platelet count
, C. PT/INR
D. Hemoglobin and Hematocrit
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: PT/INR (Prothrombin Time/International Normalized Ratio) is
used to monitor the effectiveness of Warfarin. aPTT is used for Heparin.
5. Which of the following medications is considered a ‘rescue’ inhaler for a patient
experiencing an acute asthma attack?
A. Albuterol
B. Salmeterol
C. Fluticasone
D. Tiotropium
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: Albuterol is a short-acting beta2-agonist (SABA) used for rapid
bronchodilation during acute symptoms. The others are long-acting or maintenance
medications.
6. A patient taking Lisinopril for hypertension develops a dry, nonproductive cough. What is
the nurse’s best interpretation of this finding?
A. The patient is developing pulmonary edema.
B. This is a common side effect of ACE inhibitors due to bradykinin buildup.
