NUR 2407 PHARMACOLOGY MIDTERM
EXAM - QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED
ANSWERS| 100% CORRECT |GRADE A –:
RASMUSSEN COLLEGE
1. A patient is prescribed a medication that has a high first-pass effect. Which route of
administration should the nurse expect to be avoided to ensure maximum bioavailability?
A. Oral
B. Intravenous
C. Sublingual
D. Transdermal
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: The first-pass effect refers to the metabolism of a drug by the
liver before it reaches systemic circulation. Drugs taken orally are absorbed from the GI
tract into the portal vein and pass through the liver, significantly reducing the amount of
active drug available.
2. A patient with a history of heart failure is taking Digoxin 0.125 mg daily. The nurse
identifies which electrolyte imbalance as the highest risk for developing Digoxin toxicity?
A. Hypernatremia
,B. Hypercalcemia
C. Hypomagnesemia
D. Hypokalemia
Answer: D
Conceptual Explanation: Hypokalemia (low potassium) increases the risk of Digoxin
toxicity because Digoxin and potassium compete for the same binding sites on the Na+/K+
ATPase pump. Low potassium levels allow more Digoxin to bind, leading to toxicity.
3. The nurse is preparing to administer Vancomycin IV. To prevent ‘Red Man Syndrome,’
which action should the nurse take?
A. Dilute the medication in 50 mL of Normal Saline.
B. Pre-medicate the patient with Acetaminophen.
C. Administer the drug over at least 60 minutes.
D. Apply warm compresses to the infusion site.
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: Red Man Syndrome is a rate-dependent infusion reaction
characterized by flushing and hypotension. It is prevented by infusing Vancomycin slowly,
typically over 60 minutes or more.
, 4. A patient is receiving Warfarin therapy. Which lab value is most important for the nurse to
monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?
A. aPTT
B. Platelet count
C. Hemoglobin
D. PT/INR
Answer: D
Conceptual Explanation: Prothrombin Time (PT) and International Normalized Ratio
(INR) are used to monitor the effectiveness of Warfarin. aPTT is used for Heparin
monitoring.
5. A patient is prescribed Albuterol and Beclomethasone inhalers for asthma. What is the
correct sequence of administration?
A. Albuterol first, then Beclomethasone after 5 minutes.
B. Beclomethasone first, then Albuterol after 5 minutes.
C. Both should be administered simultaneously.
D. The order does not matter as long as they are taken.
Answer: A
EXAM - QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED
ANSWERS| 100% CORRECT |GRADE A –:
RASMUSSEN COLLEGE
1. A patient is prescribed a medication that has a high first-pass effect. Which route of
administration should the nurse expect to be avoided to ensure maximum bioavailability?
A. Oral
B. Intravenous
C. Sublingual
D. Transdermal
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: The first-pass effect refers to the metabolism of a drug by the
liver before it reaches systemic circulation. Drugs taken orally are absorbed from the GI
tract into the portal vein and pass through the liver, significantly reducing the amount of
active drug available.
2. A patient with a history of heart failure is taking Digoxin 0.125 mg daily. The nurse
identifies which electrolyte imbalance as the highest risk for developing Digoxin toxicity?
A. Hypernatremia
,B. Hypercalcemia
C. Hypomagnesemia
D. Hypokalemia
Answer: D
Conceptual Explanation: Hypokalemia (low potassium) increases the risk of Digoxin
toxicity because Digoxin and potassium compete for the same binding sites on the Na+/K+
ATPase pump. Low potassium levels allow more Digoxin to bind, leading to toxicity.
3. The nurse is preparing to administer Vancomycin IV. To prevent ‘Red Man Syndrome,’
which action should the nurse take?
A. Dilute the medication in 50 mL of Normal Saline.
B. Pre-medicate the patient with Acetaminophen.
C. Administer the drug over at least 60 minutes.
D. Apply warm compresses to the infusion site.
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: Red Man Syndrome is a rate-dependent infusion reaction
characterized by flushing and hypotension. It is prevented by infusing Vancomycin slowly,
typically over 60 minutes or more.
, 4. A patient is receiving Warfarin therapy. Which lab value is most important for the nurse to
monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?
A. aPTT
B. Platelet count
C. Hemoglobin
D. PT/INR
Answer: D
Conceptual Explanation: Prothrombin Time (PT) and International Normalized Ratio
(INR) are used to monitor the effectiveness of Warfarin. aPTT is used for Heparin
monitoring.
5. A patient is prescribed Albuterol and Beclomethasone inhalers for asthma. What is the
correct sequence of administration?
A. Albuterol first, then Beclomethasone after 5 minutes.
B. Beclomethasone first, then Albuterol after 5 minutes.
C. Both should be administered simultaneously.
D. The order does not matter as long as they are taken.
Answer: A
