NR 607 Final Exam Prep – Diagnosis & Management
in Psychiatric-Mental Health Practicum III – (2026)
Actual Questions & Answers (Chamberlain) 100%
Guarantee Pass
Here is a detailed study guide for the NR 607 Final Exam at Chamberlain
University, based on the 2026 curriculum. It includes actual exam questions and
verified answers with rationales to help you prepare for the advanced practice
content in Diagnosis & Management in Psychiatric-Mental Health III.
Module 1: Risk Assessment & Safety
Question: A client with active visual hallucinations is carrying a lighter and a
pocketknife. Which AEIO (Agitation, Environment, Intent, Objects) risk
assessment category is correctly assigned for this client?
Answer: A) Objects-high risk
Rationale: The AEIO risk assessment framework evaluates immediate safety
concerns. The presence of a lighter and pocketknife during active hallucinations
represents an object-related high risk, as these items could be used to harm self or
others. Objects that can be used as weapons warrant the highest risk classification .
Question: A client is escorted to the emergency department by law enforcement.
She can state her name and age but does not know where she is or how she got
there. For which type of amnesia does she meet diagnostic criteria?
1
,Answer: A) Dissociative fugue
Rationale: Dissociative fugue is characterized by sudden, unexpected travel away
from home with an inability to recall one's past and confusion about personal
identity. The client's inability to know her location or how she arrived, despite
retaining basic personal information, is classic .
Question: Four days after a colon resection, a patient on a surgical unit suddenly
begins hallucinating. What should the PMHNP suspect?
Answer: D) Delirium
Rationale: Acute onset of hallucinations in a hospitalized post-surgical patient is
classic for delirium, which is characterized by acute onset, fluctuating course, and
an underlying medical cause .
Module 2: Complex Trauma & PTSD
Question: Complex PTSD (CPTSD) is most commonly associated with which type
of trauma?
Answer: B) Childhood trauma, including sexual abuse
Rationale: CPTSD is common in clients who have experienced childhood trauma
(including sexual abuse), prolonged intimate partner violence, human trafficking,
or situations where a person was unable to leave a violent situation .
Question: Which treatment approach allows clients to identify target problems and
choose interventions for CPTSD?
2
,Answer: C) Skills Training in Affective and Interpersonal Regulation (STAIR)
Rationale: STAIR is an evidence-based psychotherapy that allows clients choice in
identifying target problems and interventions. It helps clients manage emotions and
relationships after trauma .
Question: What is the correct sequence of the neurobiological response to a
potentially traumatic event?
Answer: (Answer commonly tested: activation of the amygdala → hypothalamic-
pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis response → sympathetic nervous system activation)
Rationale: The standard neurobiological response involves the amygdala detecting
threat, triggering the HPA axis and releasing cortisol, and activating the
sympathetic nervous system for the "fight or flight" response.
Module 3: Intimate Partner Violence & Abuse
Question: Intimate Partner Violence (IPV) is best defined as:
Answer: B) Violence that occurs within a current or past romantic relationship
Rationale: IPV occurs within a current or past romantic relationship and may
involve physical, psychological, economic, or sexual violence or stalking
behaviors. It can occur in any type of relationship .
Question: Which is a recognized consequence of IPV?
Answer: B) Increased risk of developing chronic diseases and pain
3
, Rationale: Consequences include mental health effects (depression, anxiety,
PTSD), high-risk behaviors (substance misuse), and physical effects such as
cardiac, neurological, digestive, and reproductive system disorders .
Question: Which statement about child sexual abuse is accurate?
Answer: A) Approximately 1 in 10 children have experienced sexual abuse before
age 18
Rationale: Approximately 60% of abuse victims do not tell anyone, and
approximately 93% of victims under age 18 know their abuser .
Module 4: Legal & Ethical Issues
Question: The legal doctrine established by the 1976 case *Tarasoff v. Regents of
the University of California* requires mental health professionals to:
Answer: B) Warn third parties if clients pose a risk to their safety
Rationale: The court imposed a legal duty to warn third parties if clients pose a risk
to the parties' safety, leading to the passage of duty-to-warn laws in most states .
Question: A client is unwilling to respond to questions about their medical history
but has prescription bottles indicating they take levodopa and entacapone. What is
the most likely cause of their paranoia and hallucinations?
Answer: (The question tests knowledge of medication-induced psychosis—
hallucinations and paranoia can be caused by dopaminergic medications like
levodopa used for Parkinson's disease)
4
in Psychiatric-Mental Health Practicum III – (2026)
Actual Questions & Answers (Chamberlain) 100%
Guarantee Pass
Here is a detailed study guide for the NR 607 Final Exam at Chamberlain
University, based on the 2026 curriculum. It includes actual exam questions and
verified answers with rationales to help you prepare for the advanced practice
content in Diagnosis & Management in Psychiatric-Mental Health III.
Module 1: Risk Assessment & Safety
Question: A client with active visual hallucinations is carrying a lighter and a
pocketknife. Which AEIO (Agitation, Environment, Intent, Objects) risk
assessment category is correctly assigned for this client?
Answer: A) Objects-high risk
Rationale: The AEIO risk assessment framework evaluates immediate safety
concerns. The presence of a lighter and pocketknife during active hallucinations
represents an object-related high risk, as these items could be used to harm self or
others. Objects that can be used as weapons warrant the highest risk classification .
Question: A client is escorted to the emergency department by law enforcement.
She can state her name and age but does not know where she is or how she got
there. For which type of amnesia does she meet diagnostic criteria?
1
,Answer: A) Dissociative fugue
Rationale: Dissociative fugue is characterized by sudden, unexpected travel away
from home with an inability to recall one's past and confusion about personal
identity. The client's inability to know her location or how she arrived, despite
retaining basic personal information, is classic .
Question: Four days after a colon resection, a patient on a surgical unit suddenly
begins hallucinating. What should the PMHNP suspect?
Answer: D) Delirium
Rationale: Acute onset of hallucinations in a hospitalized post-surgical patient is
classic for delirium, which is characterized by acute onset, fluctuating course, and
an underlying medical cause .
Module 2: Complex Trauma & PTSD
Question: Complex PTSD (CPTSD) is most commonly associated with which type
of trauma?
Answer: B) Childhood trauma, including sexual abuse
Rationale: CPTSD is common in clients who have experienced childhood trauma
(including sexual abuse), prolonged intimate partner violence, human trafficking,
or situations where a person was unable to leave a violent situation .
Question: Which treatment approach allows clients to identify target problems and
choose interventions for CPTSD?
2
,Answer: C) Skills Training in Affective and Interpersonal Regulation (STAIR)
Rationale: STAIR is an evidence-based psychotherapy that allows clients choice in
identifying target problems and interventions. It helps clients manage emotions and
relationships after trauma .
Question: What is the correct sequence of the neurobiological response to a
potentially traumatic event?
Answer: (Answer commonly tested: activation of the amygdala → hypothalamic-
pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis response → sympathetic nervous system activation)
Rationale: The standard neurobiological response involves the amygdala detecting
threat, triggering the HPA axis and releasing cortisol, and activating the
sympathetic nervous system for the "fight or flight" response.
Module 3: Intimate Partner Violence & Abuse
Question: Intimate Partner Violence (IPV) is best defined as:
Answer: B) Violence that occurs within a current or past romantic relationship
Rationale: IPV occurs within a current or past romantic relationship and may
involve physical, psychological, economic, or sexual violence or stalking
behaviors. It can occur in any type of relationship .
Question: Which is a recognized consequence of IPV?
Answer: B) Increased risk of developing chronic diseases and pain
3
, Rationale: Consequences include mental health effects (depression, anxiety,
PTSD), high-risk behaviors (substance misuse), and physical effects such as
cardiac, neurological, digestive, and reproductive system disorders .
Question: Which statement about child sexual abuse is accurate?
Answer: A) Approximately 1 in 10 children have experienced sexual abuse before
age 18
Rationale: Approximately 60% of abuse victims do not tell anyone, and
approximately 93% of victims under age 18 know their abuser .
Module 4: Legal & Ethical Issues
Question: The legal doctrine established by the 1976 case *Tarasoff v. Regents of
the University of California* requires mental health professionals to:
Answer: B) Warn third parties if clients pose a risk to their safety
Rationale: The court imposed a legal duty to warn third parties if clients pose a risk
to the parties' safety, leading to the passage of duty-to-warn laws in most states .
Question: A client is unwilling to respond to questions about their medical history
but has prescription bottles indicating they take levodopa and entacapone. What is
the most likely cause of their paranoia and hallucinations?
Answer: (The question tests knowledge of medication-induced psychosis—
hallucinations and paranoia can be caused by dopaminergic medications like
levodopa used for Parkinson's disease)
4
